The ##1##-point correlation function in any theory, free or interacting, can be made to vanish by a suitable rescaling of the field ##\phi##.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I would like to understand this statement.

With the above goal in mind, consider the following theory:

$$\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}\left((\partial\phi)^{2}-m^{2}\phi^{2}\right)+\frac{g}{2}\phi\partial^{\mu}\phi\partial_{\mu}\phi.$$

What criteria (on the Lagrangian ##\mathcal{L}##) is used to determine the value of the field ##\phi_{0}## such that the transformation ##\phi \rightarrow \phi + \phi_{0}## leads to a vanishing ##1##-point correlation function ##\displaystyle{\langle \Omega | T\{\phi(x_{1}\phi(x_{2})\}| \Omega \rangle}##?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# A Why can the ##1##-point correlation function be made to vanish?

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads - ##1## point correlation | Date |
---|---|

I Two dimenstional Heisenberg Hamiltonian for spin 1/2 system | Tuesday at 2:16 PM |

I Why does a photon have parity -1 | Feb 12, 2018 |

I Show that the integral of the Dirac delta function is equal to 1 | Feb 10, 2018 |

B (N+1) enhancement of spontaneous emission, why not (N+1/2) | Jan 27, 2018 |

I What are the limits of the boundaries for the Schrödigner equation | Jan 26, 2018 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**