Correlation functions in an interacting theory

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the time-correlation function in an interacting quantum field theory defined by the Lagrangian density $$\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)^{2}-\frac{1}{2}m_{\phi}^{2}\phi^{2}+\partial_{\mu}\chi^{*}\partial^{\mu}\chi-m_{\chi}^{2}\chi^{*}\chi-\mathcal{L}_{\text{int}}$$, where $$\mathcal{L}_{\text{int}}=-g\phi\chi^{*}\chi$$. It is established that the correlation function $$\langle 0| \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|0\rangle$$ equals zero due to the presence of only one field operator, leading to either a single creation or annihilation operator. This conclusion is supported by the derived expression for the correlation function, which includes a perturbative term involving the interaction coupling constant g.

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  • Understanding of quantum field theory concepts
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  • Knowledge of time-correlation functions in quantum mechanics
  • Experience with perturbation theory and interaction terms
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  • Study the derivation of time-correlation functions in quantum field theory
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Researchers, theoretical physicists, and graduate students specializing in quantum field theory and particle physics will benefit from this discussion, particularly those focusing on correlation functions and interacting theories.

spaghetti3451
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Given the theory

$$\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)^{2}-\frac{1}{2}m_{\phi}^{2}\phi^{2}+\partial_{\mu}\chi^{*}\partial^{\mu}\chi-m_{\chi}^{2}\chi^{*}\chi+\mathcal{L}_{\text{int}},\qquad \mathcal{L}_{\text{int}}=-g\phi\chi^{*}\chi,$$

the time-correlation function ##\langle \Omega | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|\Omega\rangle## is given by

$$\langle \Omega | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|\Omega\rangle = \langle 0| \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|0\rangle -ig \int d^{4}x\ \langle 0 | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})\phi(x)\chi^{*}(x)\chi(x)|0\rangle + \mathcal{O}(g^{2})$$

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Is ##\langle 0| \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|0\rangle = 0##?
 
failexam said:
Given the theory

$$\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)^{2}-\frac{1}{2}m_{\phi}^{2}\phi^{2}+\partial_{\mu}\chi^{*}\partial^{\mu}\chi-m_{\chi}^{2}\chi^{*}\chi+\mathcal{L}_{\text{int}},\qquad \mathcal{L}_{\text{int}}=-g\phi\chi^{*}\chi,$$

the time-correlation function ##\langle \Omega | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|\Omega\rangle## is given by

$$\langle \Omega | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|\Omega\rangle = \langle 0| \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|0\rangle -ig \int d^{4}x\ \langle 0 | \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})\phi(x)\chi^{*}(x)\chi(x)|0\rangle + \mathcal{O}(g^{2})$$

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Is ##\langle 0| \phi(x_{1})\chi^{*}(x_{2})\chi(x_{3})|0\rangle = 0##?
Yes since there is only one field \phi so we have either a single creation operator or a single annihilation operator.
 

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