On the Simpson's Rule wikipedia page they mention in their derivation that the calculation can be simplified if one notices that there is no loss in generality in setting ##a=-1## and ##b=1## for the integral ##\int_{a}^{b}P(x)\cdot dx## as a result of scaling.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I'm not entirely sure what they're referring to by scaling but if I had to guess it would be applying Simpson's rule to ##n## sub-intervals. I'm also thrown off by the fact that any odd function will just be 0 over this interval whereas over an asymmetric interval it would in general not be 0 yet somehow this is all valid.

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# I Why can we WLOG derive Simpson's rule over interval -1 to 1

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