Why can't a circle be squared, but a lune can?

  • Thread starter Thread starter The Anomaly
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the mathematical impossibility of squaring a circle, as established by Ferdinand Lindemann in the 19th century, due to the transcendental nature of π. In contrast, the Lune of Hippocrates can be squared because its area is a rational number, specifically (1/2)R², derived from the intersection of two circles. The distinction lies in the relationship between the area of a circle and the transcendental constant π, which does not apply to all curved shapes like the lune.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of transcendental numbers, specifically π
  • Familiarity with the concept of squarability in geometry
  • Knowledge of the Lune of Hippocrates and its geometric properties
  • Basic principles of circle geometry and area calculations
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of transcendental numbers and their implications in geometry
  • Study the proof of the squarability of the Lune of Hippocrates
  • Explore the historical context of squaring the circle and its mathematical significance
  • Investigate other curved shapes and their squarability conditions
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, geometry enthusiasts, and students studying advanced mathematical concepts related to area, curves, and transcendental numbers.

The Anomaly
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
I'm new to this forum, and I am very excited to be a member of this esteemed community. Anyway, I've been reading the Journey Through Genius, by William Dunham, and I am truly loving it. However, I had a question about a statement in the text, and I thought I'd ask if you guys could help me out with it.

I was reading about Hippocrates' proof that the lune is squarable, and the author said that despite hundreds of years of effort, the circle could not be squared. In other words, that there could not be made a square that has the same area as a circle. This was then proved in the nineteenth century by Ferdinand Lindemann.

Anyway, I understand both Hippocrates proof, and Lindemann's proof, and I believe I fully understand why it'd be impossible to make a square that is the same area as a circle. It makes sense--I mean, pi is transcendental and all, and as such it can not be drawn. However, what I don't understand is why we can still square a curved shape such as a lune. Would not a lune simply be a section of a circle? I mean, doesn't it have that same curve that a circle has--just that it is not a perfect circle?

Basically, what makes a circle so intrinsically special that it can not be squared, while other curved ones can be? Is it simply because their areas are not linked to a transcendental number like the circle is?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
What is special about a circle is just what you said above: its area depends on the constant \pi[/tex] which is transcendental. It is NOT true that a lune can alwats be squared. What is true is that a certain lune, the <b>lune of Hipocrates</b>, which is formed by intersecting a circle of Radius R with a circle of radius \sqrt{R/2} passing through points on the first circle a quarter circle apart (see <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lune_of_Hippocrates" target="_blank" class="link link--external" rel="nofollow ugc noopener">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lune_of_Hippocrates</a>), has area (1/2)R<sup>2</sup>, a rational number, and so is &quot;squarable&quot;.
 
HallsofIvy said:
What is special about a circle is just what you said above: its area depends on the constant \pi[/tex] which is transcendental. It is NOT true that a lune can alwats be squared. What is true is that a certain lune, the <b>lune of Hipocrates</b>, which is formed by intersecting a circle of Radius R with a circle of radius \sqrt{R/2} passing through points on the first circle a quarter circle apart (see <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lune_of_Hippocrates" target="_blank" class="link link--external" rel="nofollow ugc noopener">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lune_of_Hippocrates</a>), has area (1/2)R<sup>2</sup>, a rational number, and so is &quot;squarable&quot;.
<br /> <br /> Alright, thanks for the answer. That&#039;s just what I wanted to know.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 33 ·
2
Replies
33
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K