Why can't f(x) = 1 be represented as a Fourier integral?

[Oxymoron]

1) Why can't f(x) = 1, -&inf; < x < &inf; be represented as a Fourier integral?
Is it because it must be defined on a finite interval?

2) Could someone tell me how you find the embedded harmonics in a given periodic function using Fourier series and integrals? Either a quick demonstration or outline, or a link.

Many thanks.

 

[Oxymoron]

1) Perhaps it is because the integral &int;_infinity^infinity |f(x)|dx does not exist.

 

[Lonewolf]

1) For the Fourier integral to exist, we require that $\int_{-\infty}^\infty |f(x)| dx < \infty.$ i.e. the function needs to be absolutely integrable, which no non-zero constant function satisfies.