Why do all particles have a wavelength?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of why all particles, including macroscopic objects like tennis balls, are considered to have a wavelength or wave function. Participants explore the implications of the de Broglie wavelength equation and its foundational role in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that all particles can be viewed as having a wave nature, which is a fundamental aspect of quantum mechanics, although the reason for this is not fully explained.
  • One participant describes how de Broglie derived his equation by equating the energy of a particle with that of a wave, establishing a link between waves and particles.
  • Another participant questions the applicability of de Broglie's equation, pointing out that it was originally derived for photons and asks how it can be extended to other particles.
  • Responses include clarifications that the equation can be applied to particles by not assuming a zero mass, as done for photons.
  • There is mention of de Broglie's PhD thesis, highlighting its brevity and the initial skepticism it faced from evaluators, including a reference to Einstein's positive reception of the work.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding regarding the implications of de Broglie's work. While there is agreement on the wave-particle duality concept, questions remain about the foundational reasoning and applicability of the derived equations to different types of particles.

Contextual Notes

Some limitations are noted regarding the assumptions made in deriving the de Broglie equation, particularly concerning mass and the specific conditions under which it applies. The discussion does not resolve these uncertainties.

waterliyl
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So for my AS specification I need to know how to use the debroile wavelength equation which is fair enough and easy.

I was wondering if anyone could tell me why do all particles have a wavelength or wave function? Or even like a tennis ball?

Thanks,

PS: I know it's a weird question, sorry!
 
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waterliyl said:
So for my AS specification I need to know how to use the debroile wavelength equation which is fair enough and easy.

I was wondering if anyone could tell me why do all particles have a wavelength or wave function? Or even like a tennis ball?

Thanks,

PS: I know it's a weird question, sorry!

Its not a silly question, but the answer probably isn't helpful either. All particles can be viewed as having a wave nature and as a consequence all things made of particles can be viewed as having a wave nature. This is the basis for Quantum Mechanics.

We can't explain why only that it is a testable fact of nature.
 
Do you know how DeBroglie came up with his equation?...it is so simple but brilliant.
He knew that E = mc2 gave the energy equivalent of a particle and that E = hf = hc/λ gave the energy of a wave (photon) By equating these 2 equations he came up with the relationship mc = h/λ or momentum = h/λ. This gave the link between waves and particles that has been confirmed for all particles.
 
Emilyjoint said:
Do you know how DeBroglie came up with his equation?...it is so simple but brilliant.
He knew that E = mc2 gave the energy equivalent of a particle and that E = hf = hc/λ gave the energy of a wave (photon) By equating these 2 equations he came up with the relationship mc = h/λ or momentum = h/λ. This gave the link between waves and particles that has been confirmed for all particles.

I think it was his PhD thesis paper and it was one page long. They almost didn't want to give him the degree.
 
the original eqn which De-broglie took was E=[m^2c^4 +(pc)^2]^1/2.
He assumed m=0(i.e for photon),
What my ques is that , if he derived the equation for a photon ,than how can we apply this theory to any particle.
 
abhi1234 said:
the original eqn which De-broglie took was E=[m^2c^4 +(pc)^2]^1/2.
He assumed m=0(i.e for photon),
What my ques is that , if he derived the equation for a photon ,than how can we apply this theory to any particle.

By not setting m=0
 
jedishrfu said:
I think it was his PhD thesis paper and it was one page long. They almost didn't want to give him the degree.
The typeset version I have is 109 pages long. Indeed, the evaluators (including Langevin) weren't sure what to make of it and passed on a copy to Einstein, who was positive about the work.
 

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