Why do some papers use binomial expansion in dimensional regularization?

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the use of binomial expansion in dimensional regularization, specifically in the context of the integral expression derived from the paper by Donoghue and Holstein. The expression analyzed is \int dx \mbox{ }[p^2(1-x)^2-\lambda^2(1-x)]^{\epsilon}, where the factor [1-\frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)}]^{\epsilon} is expanded using binomial expansion. The key point of contention is whether this expansion is valid when x approaches 1, as it alters the ratio \frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)} significantly. The discussion raises concerns about potential error terms that may arise from this expansion.

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  • Understanding of dimensional regularization in quantum field theory (QFT)
  • Familiarity with binomial expansion and its applications
  • Knowledge of integral calculus, particularly in the context of limits
  • Basic concepts of quantum electrodynamics (QED)
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  • Review the paper by Donoghue and Holstein, focusing on page 49, equation (A1)
  • Study the implications of binomial expansion in dimensional regularization techniques
  • Explore error analysis in quantum field theory calculations
  • Investigate modern approaches to dimensional regularization in QED
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This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory and quantum electrodynamics, as well as researchers interested in advanced mathematical techniques in particle physics.

RedX
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I was looking at a paper that used dimensional regularization and the following expression was derived:

\int dx \mbox{ }[p^2(1-x)^2-\lambda^2(1-x)]^{\epsilon}

Factoring out p^2(1-x)^2:

\int dx \mbox{ }[p^2(1-x)^2]^{\epsilon}[1-\frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)}]^{\epsilon}

The part that I don't understand is that they expanded the rightmost factor in binomial expansion. \lambda^2 is smaller than p^2 (in fact \lambda^2=p^2-m^2), but the 1/(1-x) changes all that when x approaches 1, making \frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)} much greater than 1.

Is it okay to expand the rightmost factor in binomial expansion because when x goes to 1, the factor on the left [p^2(1-x)^2]^{\epsilon} goes to zero, so it doesn't matter what's on the rightmost side at that point? If so, isn't there an error term that needs to be calculated?
 
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RedX said:
I was looking at a paper that used dimensional regularization and the following expression was derived:

\int dx \mbox{ }[p^2(1-x)^2-\lambda^2(1-x)]^{\epsilon}

Factoring out p^2(1-x)^2:

\int dx \mbox{ }[p^2(1-x)^2]^{\epsilon}[1-\frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)}]^{\epsilon}

The part that I don't understand is that they expanded the rightmost factor in binomial expansion. \lambda^2 is smaller than p^2 (in fact \lambda^2=p^2-m^2), but the 1/(1-x) changes all that when x approaches 1, making \frac{\lambda^2}{p^2(1-x)} much greater than 1.

Is it okay to expand the rightmost factor in binomial expansion because when x goes to 1, the factor on the left [p^2(1-x)^2]^{\epsilon} goes to zero, so it doesn't matter what's on the rightmost side at that point? If so, isn't there an error term that needs to be calculated?

Could be. Could you give us some more context? Do you have the citation for the paper? Cheers,

Adam
 
olgranpappy said:
Could be. Could you give us some more context? Do you have the citation for the paper? Cheers,

Adam

There's a lot of pages, so I'll just link to a link of it:

http://www.slac.stanford.edu/spires/find/hep/www?rawcmd=FIND+A+DONOGHUE+AND+HOLSTEIN+and+robinett&FORMAT=www&SEQUENCE=

It's the second paper in the list, and you can download a copy by clicking on Scanned Version (KEK).

The part I'm referring to is on page 49, equation (A1).

It's an older paper, so they probably do things a little differently, but still, the result should be the same as with today's techniques, so I'm quite surprised: I haven't seen any of these techniques tried before in QFT books on QED.

*actually, it's page 50 if you click on the scanned images (Tiff and Gif). On the actual paper, it is page 49.
 
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