Why Does div[grad(1/r)] Equal -4πδ(r vec)?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter cristianbahena
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Calculus
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
2 replies · 5K views
cristianbahena
Messages
16
Reaction score
1
I don't understand why grad(1/r)= (-1/r^2)ê_r. I know its derivate, but in cero the function is not definite and you can't find its derivative in cero.And, why div [grad(1/r)]=-4πδ(r vec) ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
cristianbahena said:
I don't understand why grad(1/r)= (-1/r^2)ê_r. I know its derivate, but in cero the function is not definite and you can't find its derivative in cero.And, why div [grad(1/r)]=-4πδ(r vec) ?

This is simply applying definitions. Also,

##\frac{d|x|}{dx} = \frac{|x|}{x} = \begin{cases} 1 \quad \mathrm{if} \quad x >0\\-1 \quad \mathrm{if} \quad x <0 \end{cases}##
 
You're probably supposed to show that

##\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0+}\int_{\mathbb{R}^3}\nabla \cdot \left(\nabla \left(\frac{1}{|\mathbf{r}|+\epsilon}\right)\right) f(\mathbf{r})dV \propto f(\mathbf{0})##

for a relatively arbitrary function ##f( \mathbf{r})##. Note that ##\mathbf{r}## is a position vector, ##|\mathbf{r}|## its norm and ##dV## a volume element.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Delta2