Why Does H ∩ K = {e} Imply G Has Only One Element of Order 3?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of the intersection of two subgroups H and K in a group G of order 6, specifically focusing on why H ∩ K = {e} suggests that G can have only one element of order 3. Participants explore the reasoning behind this lemma and engage in mathematical reasoning and proofs related to group theory.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that if G has two elements of order 3, then the intersection of their generated subgroups H and K must be trivial, H ∩ K = {e}, leading to the conclusion that G can only have one subgroup of order 3.
  • Others question the uniqueness of elements in the product set HK, suggesting that if H ∩ K = {e}, it may not necessarily lead to a contradiction regarding the number of elements in G.
  • A participant proposes a method to show that if hk = h'k' for h, h' in H and k, k' in K, then this implies both h''h and kk'' belong to H ∩ K, which would contradict the assumption that H ∩ K = {e}.
  • Another participant reflects on the implications of their proof, considering whether showing h''h and kk'' belong to H ∩ K leads to a contradiction or simply confirms that h = h' and k = k'.
  • Some participants express confusion about the reasoning and seek clarification on the implications of their arguments regarding the uniqueness of elements and the structure of the group.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of H ∩ K = {e} and whether it leads to a unique element of order 3 in G. The discussion remains unresolved, with multiple competing interpretations of the mathematical reasoning involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the need for careful consideration of group properties and the uniqueness of elements, with some steps in the reasoning process remaining unclear or debated.

Samuelb88
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Lemma. A group [itex]G[/itex] of order 6 can have only one element of order 3.

Pf. Suppose [itex]G[/itex] has two elements of order 3. Call these elements [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex]. Let [itex]H[/itex] and [itex]K[/itex] be the subgroups generated by [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] resp. Then [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex] and therefore [itex]G[/itex] can have only one subgroup of order 3.

I'm reading over my notes from class and I'm confused on the reasoning here. Why does [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex] imply that [itex]G[/itex] can have only one element of order 3?
 
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How many elements does

[tex]HK=\{hk~\vert~h\in H,k\in K\}[/tex]

have if [itex]H\cap K=\{e\}[/itex]. That is, can you find more than 6 elements in this group?
 
Hi micromass.

Let [itex]H = \{ e, x, x^2 \}[/itex], and let [itex]K = \{ e, y, y^2 \}[/itex]. If [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex], then [itex]HK = \{ e, xy, x^2y, x^2y, x^2y^2, yx, yx^2, y^2x, y^2x^2 \}[/itex] and [itex]|HK| = 9[/itex]. And since [itex]e, x, x^2, y, y^2[/itex] are unique, therefore there products constitute unique elements. Thus [itex]G[/itex] can have only one element of order 3.
 
Samuelb88 said:
Hi micromass.

Let [itex]H = \{ e, x, x^2 \}[/itex], and let [itex]K = \{ e, y, y^2 \}[/itex]. If [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex], then [itex]HK = \{ e, xy, x^2y, x^2y, x^2y^2, yx, yx^2, y^2x, y^2x^2 \}[/itex] and [itex]|HK| = 9[/itex]. And since [itex]e, x, x^2, y, y^2[/itex] are unique, therefore there products constitute unique elements. Thus [itex]G[/itex] can have only one element of order 3.

No, that's not correct. Why can't xy=yx, for example?? Furthermore, you forgot x,y,x2 and y2.

Let's consider this set:

[tex]\{e,x,x^2,y,xy,x^2y,y^2xy^2x^2,y^2\}[/tex]

Can you show that all of these elements are distinct from each other??
 
Bummer. That was my wishful reasoning there. Well by cancellation laws, I can determine that:

1. [itex]x \neq x^2[/itex] since if they were equal, this would imply [itex]x=e[/itex], but [itex]x[/itex] has order 3.
2. [itex]x \neq y[/itex], by assumption.
3. [itex]x \neq xy[/itex] since [itex]y \neq e[/itex].
4. [itex]x \neq x^2 y[/itex] since if they were equal, by cancellation laws, it would follow that [itex]x^{-1} = x^2 = y[/itex], which can't happen since [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] generate unique elements.
5. [itex]x \neq y^2 x y^2 x^2[/itex] since if they were equal, it would follow that [itex]y=e[/itex].
6. [itex]x \neq y^2[/itex] since [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] generate unique elements.

A argument that the other elements are not equal is similar.
 
Samuelb88 said:
Bummer. That was my wishful reasoning there. Well by cancellation laws, I can determine that:

1. [itex]x \neq x^2[/itex] since if they were equal, this would imply [itex]x=e[/itex], but [itex]x[/itex] has order 3.
2. [itex]x \neq y[/itex], by assumption.
3. [itex]x \neq xy[/itex] since [itex]y \neq e[/itex].
4. [itex]x \neq x^2 y[/itex] since if they were equal, by cancellation laws, it would follow that [itex]x^{-1} = x^2 = y[/itex], which can't happen since [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] generate unique elements.
5. [itex]x \neq y^2 x y^2 x^2[/itex] since if they were equal, it would follow that [itex]y=e[/itex].
6. [itex]x \neq y^2[/itex] since [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]y[/itex] generate unique elements.

A argument that the other elements are not equal is similar.

Uuuh, ok, that's good. But you can do things a lot easier. We just need to prove that

[tex]hk\neq h^\prime k^\prime[/tex]

for h,h' in H and k,k' in K. But if equality holds then

[tex]h^\prime h =k^\prime k\in H\cap K[/tex]

that's what your professor wants you to do.
 
Okay, I think I see how to do this. Suppose [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex]. I want to suppose that there exists [itex]h, h' \in H[/itex] and [itex]k, k' \in K[/itex] such that [itex]hk = h'k'[/itex]. It follows that [itex]h^{-1}h' = kk'^{-1}[/itex]. Let [itex]h'' = h^{-1}[/itex] and [itex]k'' = k'^{-1}[/itex] and get [itex]h'' h' = k k''[/itex]. But this would imply both [itex]h'' h[/itex] and [itex]k k''[/itex] belong to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], a contradiction. How does this look?
 
Samuelb88 said:
Okay, I think I see how to do this. Suppose [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex]. I want to suppose that there exists [itex]h, h' \in H[/itex] and [itex]k, k' \in K[/itex] such that [itex]hk = h'k'[/itex]. It follows that [itex]h^{-1}h' = kk'^{-1}[/itex]. Let [itex]h'' = h^{-1}[/itex] and [itex]k'' = k'^{-1}[/itex] and get [itex]h'' h' = k k''[/itex]. But this would imply both [itex]h'' h[/itex] and [itex]k k''[/itex] belong to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], a contradiction. How does this look?

Why is this a contradiction? Why can't both h''h and k'' be in [itex]H\cap K[/itex]?
 
I was thinking that it was contradiction to my assumption that [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex], but now I realize that [itex]h^{-1} h'[/itex] could equal the identity. But it seems strange to me that for different elements [itex]h, h', k, k'[/itex] that if [itex]hk = h'k'[/itex] then [itex]h h'^{-1}[/itex] could be the identity because wouldn't that be saying h=h' and k=k'? That is why I thought that if I showed that [itex]hk=h'k'[/itex] implied [itex]h'' h'[/itex] and [itex]kk''[/itex] belonged to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], it would contradict my supposition since I was assuming [itex]h'' h' \neq e[/itex].
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Samuelb88 said:
I was thinking that it was contradiction to my assumption that [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex], but now I realize that [itex]h^{-1} h'[/itex] could equal the identity. But it seems strange to me that for different elements [itex]h, h', k, k'[/itex] that if [itex]hk = h'k'[/itex] then [itex]h h'^{-1}[/itex] could be the identity because wouldn't that be saying h=h' and k=k'? That is why I thought that if I showed that [itex]hk=h'k'[/itex] implied [itex]h'' h'[/itex] and [itex]kk''[/itex] belonged to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], it would contradict my supposition since I was assuming [itex]h'' h' \neq e[/itex].

Yes, indeed, so if hk=h'k', then you have h=h' and k=k'. Wasn't this what you needed to show?
 
  • #11
So what you're saying is instead of citing a contradiction, what I should of concluded from my proof above that since [itex]h'h''[/itex] and [itex]kk''[/itex] belong to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], it follows that [itex]h'h'' = e = kk''[/itex] since [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex]. Thus [itex]h=h'[/itex] and [itex]k=k'[/itex].
 
  • #12
Samuelb88 said:
So what you're saying is instead of citing a contradiction, what I should of concluded from my proof above that since [itex]h'h''[/itex] and [itex]kk''[/itex] belong to [itex]H \cap K[/itex], it follows that [itex]h'h'' = e = kk''[/itex] since [itex]H \cap K = \{ e \}[/itex]. Thus [itex]h=h'[/itex] and [itex]k=k'[/itex].

Yes!
 
  • #13
Thank you very much for all your help, micromass!
 

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