Why Does My Probability Integration Yield 1/2 Instead of 1?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a probability integration problem related to trigonometric functions and their geometric interpretations. The original poster is attempting to understand why their integration yields a result of 1/2 instead of the expected 1.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the integration limits and the implications of considering only half of the possible angles in a semicircle. Questions are raised about the mathematical reasoning behind the integration process and the treatment of trigonometric functions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights regarding the integration limits and the need to account for the full range of angles. There is an ongoing exploration of the mathematical principles involved, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the original poster's integration running from y=0 to y=r and the implications of this choice on the outcome. The discussion also touches on the relationship between sine and cosine functions and the potential oversight in considering negative values.

mathman44
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Homework Statement


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I have that [tex]p(\theta)d\theta = \frac{1}{\pi}d\theta[/tex], this is definitely correct.

Also y=r*sin(theta) so dy=r*cos(theta)*d(theta).

Substituting d(theta) in above and simplifying, I have:

[tex]p(y)dy = \frac{1}{pi} \frac{dy}{\sqrt{r^2-y^2}}[/tex]

The problem is, integrating this from y=0 to y=r, I obtain 1/2, and not 1, as expected. I don't understand why this is... anyone?
 
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I'm not totally sure, but I think the problem is that in your integration your considering only half of the posibilities, I mean, you are only considering one half of the semi circle that can be described by the needle.

The min and max angles are \pi and 0. since y=r sin(\theta), you have y=0 for theta=0 or pi. This means that, when integrating between 0 and r, you need to multiply by a factor 2 to consider the whole spectrum.

Hope it helps...
 
Thanks, I thought exactly what you wrote. Still, is there any reason mathematically why this is so? When I do the same problem, but for the x-projection, this isn't an issue since the integration runs from -r to r.
 
Yes... the mathemathical reason is that the satisfied relation for trigonometric functions is [itex]\cos^2(\theta)=1-\sin^2(\theta)[/itex], but when you replace [itex]\cos(\theta)=\sqrt{1-\sin^2(theta)}[/itex] you are leaving out all negative values of cos(theta), i.e. all angles between pi/2 and pi... and so... you are considering only half of the posibilities.
 
Perfect. Thanks!
 

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