Why does rotational invariance have to do with spin?

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SUMMARY

Rotational invariance is fundamentally linked to both orbital and spin angular momentum in quantum mechanics, as established in Griffiths and Ballentine's texts. The rotation group, while abstract, governs these invariances and does not necessarily correspond to classical rotations. Specifically, the spin 1/2 representation operates within a complex 2-dimensional vector space of spinors, diverging from classical intuitions about rotation. Understanding these concepts requires a thorough reading of Ballentine, particularly chapters 3 and 7, to grasp the deeper implications of rotational invariance in quantum mechanics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly angular momentum.
  • Familiarity with the rotation group and its representations.
  • Knowledge of complex vector spaces and spinors.
  • Reading comprehension of advanced physics texts, specifically Griffiths and Ballentine.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the chapter on angular momentum in Griffiths' "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics".
  • Read chapter 7 of Ballentine's "Quantum Mechanics" for a deeper understanding of rotational invariance.
  • Explore the mathematical framework of the rotation group and its representations in quantum mechanics.
  • Investigate the implications of spinors in quantum mechanics and their relation to angular momentum.
USEFUL FOR

Students of quantum mechanics, physicists exploring angular momentum, and anyone seeking to understand the abstract nature of rotational invariance in quantum systems.

carllacan
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Hi.

According to Griffiths the conmutation relations for the angular momentum and spin operators conmutation relations can be deduced from the rotational invariance, as in Ballentine 3.3. For the angular momentum seems logical that it is so, but how is it that rotational invariance leads to spin relations if quantum spin has nothing to do with rotations (as it is emphatically repeated in most books)?

Or is it that rotational invariance has actually a different, more abstract, meaning in quantum mechanics than it has in the classical case, as spin does?

Thank you for your time.
 
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carllacan said:
For the angular momentum seems logical that it is so, but how is it that rotational invariance leads to spin relations if quantum spin has nothing to do with rotations (as it is emphatically repeated in most books)?

Two things:

(1) Rotational invariance and rotation refer to invariance under the rotation group for both the orbital and spin angular momentum. The rotation group itself is an abstract object that can be given explicit form using different representations but these representations need not act on 3-dimensional physical space and produce rotational flows of the form you are familiar with both from classical mechanics and intuitively (for example the spin 1/2 representation acts on a complex 2-dimensional vector space of spinors). Read chapter 7 of Ballentine after finishing chapter 3 and then hopefully this will all be clear to you. The subject of your question constitutes a very deep and far reaching concept so you really need to go through chapter 7 of Ballentine; a forum post won't do it any justice. After that you can ask more specific questions.

(2) Orbital angular momentum also does not correspond to rotation or orbit in the classical sense. Such classical notions of rotation and orbit would first require the notion of a spatial trajectory and secondly the notion of actually "possessing" angular momentum neither of which can be realized (no pun intended) in QM without a plethora of issues following suit. So if it seems logical to you, make sure it is not for the wrong reason(s) conceptually
 
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