I Clarification on a statement about spin 1/2 z component related to x and y

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The discussion centers on a statement from a YouTube lecture regarding quantum spin, specifically the relationship between z-angular momentum and x-angular momentum. The confusion arises from the lecturer's reference to combining states with definite z-angular momentum while the preceding material only discusses x and y states. Participants clarify that the states being combined are eigenstates of the S_z operator, not actual measured states, and that the resulting superposition leads to a state of definite x-angular momentum. The conversation also highlights the challenge of understanding superposition and the conventional use of the z-basis in quantum mechanics. Overall, the dialogue emphasizes the importance of grasping these foundational concepts in quantum theory.
  • #31
PeterDonis said:
Actually, I take that back; you didn't do it entirely correctly in post #22, you just got lucky.

The correct part of what you did in post #22 is this equation:

$$
\frac{\hbar}{2} \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} = \lambda \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}
$$

where I have put back the factors of ##1 / \sqrt{2}## on each side to make it clear exactly what we are doing, namely, writing the eigenvalue equation for ##\hat{S}_x## and ##| x_+ \rangle##. But this gives two equations for ##\lambda##, not one: one equation for the upper component of the RHS, the second for the lower component of the RHS. Those equations are

$$
\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( 0 \times 1 + 1 \times 1 \right) = \lambda \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \times 1
$$

$$
\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( 1 \times 1 + 0 \times 1 \right) = \lambda \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \times 1
$$

Both of these equations give the same value for ##\lambda##, namely ##\hbar / 2##.

Now do the same with the column vector

$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}
$$
shoot, (wasn't being careful) , should have looked up the actual matrix operation -

$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0&\frac{\hbar}{2}\\ \frac{\hbar}{2}&0\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}
1\\-1\end{pmatrix} = \lambda \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}
$$
2 equations:
$$
\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}} \\
-\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = -\frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}} \\

\lambda = \frac{\hbar}{2}
$$
 
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  • #32
Sparky_ said:
2 equations

You have the signs wrong. The eigenvalue should be ##- \hbar / 2##.
 
  • #33
crap, went too fast

(I did on scratch paper earlier the "characteristic equation" deal for finding eigenvalues - the determinant resulting from subtracting the eigenvalues times the identity matrix and setting to zero ...

there I got $$ \pm \frac{\hbar}{2} $$

I should have caught that. I knew there was a $$-\frac{\hbar}{2}$$

corrected:
$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix} 0&\frac{\hbar}{2}\\ \frac{\hbar}{2}&0\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1\\-1\end{pmatrix} = \lambda \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix} \\

-\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}} \\
\frac{\hbar}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = -\frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}} \\

\lambda = -\frac{\hbar}{2}
$$
 

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