Why eigenvalues of L_x^2 and L_z^2 identical?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the eigenvalues of the angular momentum operators L_x^2 and L_z^2, specifically for the case where l=1. Participants are tasked with calculating and comparing the eigenvalues of these operators.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the derivation of eigenvalues for L_x^2 and L_z^2, noting that both yield 0 and \hbar^2. Questions arise regarding the qualitative reasoning behind the identical eigenvalues despite the directional differences of the operators.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants exploring the implications of the eigenvalues being the same while questioning the states associated with each operator. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of the operators, but no consensus has been reached on the underlying reasons for the equality of the eigenvalues.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the calculations are specific to the case of l=1 and mention the use of eigenvalues associated with the z-component of angular momentum. There is an emphasis on the distinction between the eigenstates of L_z and L_x.

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Homework Statement



Calculate the eigenvalues of the [itex]L_x^2[/itex] matrix.
Calculate the eigenvalues of the [itex]L_z^2[/itex] matrix.
Compare these and comment on the result.

Homework Equations



[itex]L_x=\frac{1}{2}(L_+ + L_- )[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I have derived eigenvalues for each: [itex]0[/itex] and [itex]\hbar^2[/itex] for both [itex]L_x^2[/itex] and [itex]L_z^2[/itex]. But why are they identical? I'm finding it difficult in qualitatively explaining why the eigenvalues are the same for both.
 
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Because the God of Physics does not care which direction you call the [itex]x[/itex]-direction and which direction you call the [itex]z[/itex]-direction.
 
Sorry I forgot to mention this is for [itex]l=1[/itex].

Okay, but I used [itex]L_z[/itex] eigenvalues of [itex]m\hbar[/itex], where [itex]m=-1,0,1[/itex] in this case, and used [itex]L_x=\frac{1}{2}(L_+ + L_- )[/itex]. I have called the z component the one in which is certain, so how can the x component squared in this case have the same eigenvalues as the z component squared?
 
The operators will have the same eigenvalues for the reason Oxvillian said, but that's not saying anything about the state a particle is in. If a particle is in an eigenstate of ##\hat{L}_z##, it's not in an eigenstate of ##\hat{L}_x##.
 

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