Why Is 0 Divided by 0 Undefined?

[Martin Rattigan]

(0*n)/0 = 0*(n/0)

This step is incorrect. With IBM's implementation (a*b)/c is not necessarily a*(b/c) - in fact this fails not only when c=0.

It is necessary to live with the consequences of what has been defined. But what has been defined in any given circumstance is not generally a matter for proof. IBM give you some very good manuals. These tell you what is defined and what the definition are.

 

[The Chaz]

That's all fine and good (and of some interest, though it's a strictly decreasing function over time), but with the OP in mind -
WHAT does this have to do with the QUESTION! Is this kid in an IBM class? Is he even a kid (or male)? ;)
I imagine a h.s. or undergrad student thinking "what the $%^ are they talking about?!". Can we help this guy get some closure, or just regurgitate an endless stream of advanced topics? I personally don't mind talking about this stuff, but we should do that elsewhere.

 

[Martin Rattigan]

I would imagine that OP had got all he wanted to from the thread long before you reopened it.

 

[The Chaz]

I would imagine that OP had got all he wanted to from the thread long before you reopened it.

Let's hope so! Funny word choice, though. "reopened" implies closure, which wasn't apparent (at least to me) in the 1-hour gap between my first post and the post immediately preceding that...

 

[lifelearner]

Thank you all for your input. This question actually appears in Calculus by Varberg, Purcell, and Rigdon and I encountered while I was going through the pages to refresh my calculus.