Why is my two-particle wavefunction not normalizing over time?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a one-dimensional two-particle wavefunction, psi(x1, x2, t), which is initially normalized at t=0. The original poster is tasked with demonstrating that this wavefunction remains normalized over time, despite encountering difficulties with the normalization integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to normalize the wavefunction by integrating its squared magnitude over all space but encounters convergence issues. Some participants suggest that the integration should be limited to the confines of a particle in a box, questioning the appropriateness of the wavefunction used.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the normalization issue, with some providing guidance on the integration limits necessary for a particle in a box scenario. There is an ongoing dialogue about the correct approach to the problem, but no consensus has been reached regarding the solution.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted constraint regarding the integration limits, as some participants emphasize the need to integrate only from -a to a rather than over all space, which is a critical aspect of the problem setup.

htown1397
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Homework Statement



Hi, I've been working on this for a while but I just can't seem to figure this out. I have to solve a problem regarding a one-dimensional two-particle wavefunction psi(x1, x2, t) that is normalized at t=0, and the particles are not in spin. I have to show that the wavefunction remains normalized for all time. I would appreciate any help.

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that to normalize, Integral[|psi(x1, x2, t)|^2] =1. So, I have written out the wavefunction, how I think it is, for a two particle system:

(1/a) Sin[(n*Pi*x)/(2*a)]*Sin[(m*Pi*y)/(2*a)]*Exp[-I*w*t]

Then, I went ahead and found the complex conjugate and multiplied it by the original wavefunction. I tried to integrate it on mathematica from -Infinity to Infinity, but it said the integral does not converge.
 
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Hi,

I believe that you are using the wavefuction for a particle in a box of length 2a. Hence, you don't have to integrate over all space - only in the box (i.e. from -a to a).

Having a plane wave in unbound space is unphysical and not normalisable - since that would imply that the particle exists everywhere for all time.
 
Last edited:
Right. I was working it out and that's the problem I ran into. So, if that's not how it's done, how would I go about solving this problem then?
 
Actually, this problem is quite trivial if you know that wavefunction. You don't actually have to do the integral, because you can factorize e^iwt out.
 
htown1397 said:
Right. I was working it out and that's the problem I ran into. So, if that's not how it's done, how would I go about solving this problem then?

Did you read my post? You have to integrate between "a" and "-a", and NOT from infinity to -infinity.
 
Last edited:

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