Time Evolution After Sudden Potential Change

In summary, the conversation discusses the probability distribution in position and momentum space for a particle in an infinite potential well. It is described that the particle is initially in its ground state and then the potential is removed, allowing the particle to move freely. The individual then asks for help on how to calculate the probability distribution at this point in time. The suggested approach involves using the Hamiltonian and the relationship between the wavefunction at different points in time.
  • #1
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Homework Statement


A particle in an infinite potential well ##V(x) = 0, -\frac{a}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{a}{2}##, and infinite elsewhere is in it's ground state. Subsequently, the potential is removed and the particle is free to move.

How does the probability distribution in x and p change immediately after the walls are removed?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


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I have found and normalised my wavefunction in position space ##\psi (x, t=0) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sin(\frac{\pi x}{a} + \frac{\pi}{2})##

I have taken the Fourier transform of this wavefunction to find the wavefunction in momentum space ##\psi (p, t=0) = \frac{2 \hbar^{\frac{3}{2}} \sqrt{\pi}}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{a}} (\hbar^2 \pi^2 - a^2 p^2)} \cos(\frac{pa}{2 \hbar})##

with these, i can calculate the probability density in x and p at t=0, but i am unsure of how to proceed once the potential has been removed.

From reading the wikipedia page here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hamiltonian_(quantum_mechanics)#Free_particle

I think I might need to make use of this relation: ##|\psi(t)\rangle = e^{-iHt / \hbar} |\psi(0)\rangle##, where I use the hamiltonian of the free particle to compute how my initial wavefunction evolves.

I am not familiar with Dirac notation however - Is that equivalent to the hamiltonian acting on the wavefunction in the argument of the exponential?

something like ##\psi (x,t) = e^{-iH \psi(x, t=0) t / \hbar}##

Thanks for any help you can give!
 
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  • #2
I am really confused.

Do I just need to make use of ##\hat{H} \psi (x,0) = E \psi (x,0)##, and ##\psi (x,t) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi (x,0)##?

Using the hamiltonian for a free particle
 
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