Why is the contraction constant important in the Banach contraction principle?

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SUMMARY

The contraction constant h is crucial in the Banach contraction principle (BCP) as it must be strictly less than 1 to ensure convergence to a fixed point. When h is less than 1, the sequence f^n(x0) converges to the fixed point because h^n approaches 0 as n increases. If f is merely a contractive mapping, rather than a contraction, the necessary control over convergence is lost, and a fixed point may not exist. This distinction highlights the importance of the contraction constant in maintaining the integrity of the BCP.

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ozkan12
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It was important in the proof of BCP that the contraction constant h be strictly less than 1. That gave us control over the rate of convergence of f^n (x0) to the fixed point since h^n goes to 0 as n goes to infinity...If we consider f is contractive mapping instead of a contraction, then we lose that control and indeed a fixed point need not exist...But I didnt understand this case...how is contraction constant h important ? I don't understand...please talk about this
 
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ozkan12 said:
It was important in the proof of BCP that the contraction constant h be strictly less than 1. That gave us control over the rate of convergence of f^n (x0) to the fixed point since h^n goes to 0 as n goes to infinity...If we consider f is contractive mapping instead of a contraction, then we lose that control and indeed a fixed point need not exist.
As far as I know, the term "contractive mapping", as distinct from "contraction", or "contraction mapping", does not have a universally accepted meaning in English. You'll have to give us its definition. Do you mean a "nonexpansive map"?

ozkan12 said:
how is contraction constant h important ?
You said it yourself (I am guessing): if $h\ge 1$, a fixed point need not exist.

ozkan12 said:
I don't understand...
What exactly?
 
no I say contractive mapping...the definition of contractive mapping: let f:X to X be self mapping on (X,d) metric space
if d(fx,fy)<d(x,y) then f is contractive mapping and note that in this concept 'h' contraction constant equal to 1 and inequality is strict inequality
 
ozkan12 said:
let f:X to X be self mapping on (X,d) metric space
if d(fx,fy)<d(x,y) then f is contractive mapping
OK. So, what is your question?
 
It was important in the proof of BCP that the contraction constant h be strictly less than 1. That gave us control over the rate of convergence of f^n (x0) to the fixed point since h^n goes to 0 as n goes to infinity...If we consider f is contractive mapping instead of a contraction, then we lose that control and indeed a fixed point need not exist...

how this happened ? that is why if we choose contractive map we lost control of rate of convergence of f^n(x0)

x0 is arbitrary point in (X,d) metric space
 

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