Hey guys, could someone help explain to me why the integral of 1/x from -1 to 1 is considered divergent? It would seem as if the area underneath the function cancels out with each other to give you the result of zero, but apparently this is not the case.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks!

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# Why is the integral of 1/x from -1 to 1 divergent?

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