Why is the limit of cot(x) approaching pi from the negative side -infinity?

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The limit of cot(x) as x approaches pi from the negative side is negative infinity due to the behavior of the sine function. As x approaches pi, sin(x) approaches zero from the positive side, making cot(x) equal to -1 divided by a small positive number, resulting in negative infinity. This contrasts with previous examples where the signs of the numerator and denominator determined the limit's direction. Understanding the sign of sin(x) just before pi clarifies why cot(x) approaches negative infinity. This resolution highlights the importance of analyzing the behavior of trigonometric functions near their critical points.
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Homework Statement


lim x->pi- cot(x)


Homework Equations


cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)


The Attempt at a Solution



so substituting pi into:
cot(pi) = cos(pi)/sin(pi)
= -1/0
so you have a negative over 0, approaching from the -ve side of pi wouldn't it be +infinity? why is it -infinity?


additionally this confuses me because a previous question I was working went like:

1)lim x->-3+ (x+2)/(x+3) = - infinity
2)lim x->-3- (x+2)/(x+3) = + infinity
when substituting in 3, one would get a -ve int/0.
so i thought you found out whether it is +ve or -ve infinity by multiplying signs.
1) -3+ so take + times - (from -ve int) = -ve ...and you get -ve infinity
2) -3- so take - times - (from -ve int) = +ve ...and you get +ve infinity

but that was the way a friend showed me, its worked for all the questions up until the cotx one. any help in understanding is much appreciated, thanks.
 
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shocklightnin said:

Homework Statement


lim x->pi- cot(x)


Homework Equations


cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)


The Attempt at a Solution



so substituting pi into:
cot(pi) = cos(pi)/sin(pi)
= -1/0
so you have a negative over 0, approaching from the -ve side of pi wouldn't it be +infinity? why is it -infinity?


additionally this confuses me because a previous question I was working went like:

1)lim x->-3+ (x+2)/(x+3) = - infinity
2)lim x->-3- (x+2)/(x+3) = + infinity
when substituting in 3, one would get a -ve int/0.
so i thought you found out whether it is +ve or -ve infinity by multiplying signs.
1) -3+ so take + times - (from -ve int) = -ve ...and you get -ve infinity
2) -3- so take - times - (from -ve int) = +ve ...and you get +ve infinity

but that was the way a friend showed me, its worked for all the questions up until the cotx one. any help in understanding is much appreciated, thanks.
What is the sign of sin(x) when x is a little less than π ?
 
positive..?
 
Right, so it should be \frac{-1}{0^+} because we're looking at \sin(\pi ^-)
 
ooh right right! so that's why its -ve infinity. ah thanks, got it now :P
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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