MHB Why is the Yorke-Kaplan conjecture still unresolved?

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The Yorke-Kaplan conjecture remains unresolved despite claims of a proof in the 1980s, which may have contained flaws not widely acknowledged. Participants in the discussion express uncertainty about the reasons for its continued status as a conjecture, suggesting that pathological cases might complicate the matter. The MathWorld article is referenced as a source that mentions the conjecture was "proved" but fails to address any potential errors in that proof. The conversation highlights the challenges in verifying the conjecture and the importance of reliable sources in mathematical discourse. Overall, the conjecture's unresolved status continues to intrigue mathematicians.
Joppy
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I read somewhere that this was proved sometime in the 80's, but that same source didn't mention that the proof was wrong. Of course I would cite the source but I can't find it again.. Does anyone know of any specific reason why this is still a conjecture?

I realize that for these sorts of measures there is often some pathological or special case getting in the way. Is that what is happening here?

Thanks :).
 
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The MathWorld article fits your description (mentions that it was "proved" in the 1980's, but does not mention a flaw in the proof), but I'm not sure if that's what you were thinking of.
 
Ackbach said:
The MathWorld article fits your description (mentions that it was "proved" in the 1980's, but does not mention a flaw in the proof), but I'm not sure if that's what you were thinking of.

Thanks Ackbach! I'm not sure it's the same article.. but I should have checked at MathWorld anyway since there is a nice paper trail there :). Thanks again.
 

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