Why is this homology group is zero?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of why the first homology group of a triangulation of the 2-sphere is considered to be zero. Participants explore the definitions and properties of homology groups, particularly in the context of the 2-sphere.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that for a triangulation K of S^2, the first homology group H_1(K) is defined as Z_1(K)/B_1(K) and questions why it is zero.
  • Another participant asserts that the first homology group is zero because the sphere is simply connected, although they note the original question lacks details about the triangulation and the cycle involved.
  • Some participants clarify that the term "zero" refers to the identity element in abelian groups, indicating that a group consisting of a single equivalence class is also termed "zero".
  • There is a reiteration that zero is the convention for the identity in abelian groups, emphasizing the nature of homology groups.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the interpretation of "zero" in the context of homology groups, but there is some ambiguity regarding the specifics of the triangulation and the cycle. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the clarity of the original question.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the need for more information about the triangulation of the 2-sphere and the specific cycle in question, which may affect the understanding of the homology group.

kakarotyjn
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For example,K is a triangulation of S^2;H_1 (K ) = Z_1 (K )/B_1 (K ).And Z_1 (K ) = B_1 (K ).Then I think H_1(K)=[z],z is any element of Z_1(K),[z] is the equivalent class of z .But why is it zero?Thank you!
 
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kakarotyjn said:
For example,K is a triangulation of S^2;H_1 (K ) = Z_1 (K )/B_1 (K ).And Z_1 (K ) = B_1 (K ).Then I think H_1(K)=[z],z is any element of Z_1(K),[z] is the equivalent class of z .But why is it zero?Thank you!

Your question is a little vague because you are not describing the triangulation of the 2 sphere that you are using and you are not describing the cycle,z.

Be assured that the first homology is zero because the sphere is simply connected.
 
Last edited:
Maybe the question is why we say "zero" for the group consisting of a single equivalence class? In that case, the answer is because homology groups are abelian, so the identity is written as zero, and the group consisting of only the identity is also called "zero".
 
Tinyboss said:
Maybe the question is why we say "zero" for the group consisting of a single equivalence class? In that case, the answer is because homology groups are abelian, so the identity is written as zero, and the group consisting of only the identity is also called "zero".

yes. zero is the convention for the identity in abelian groups.
 
K would be the same as k K=kMaybe the question is why we say "zero" for the group consisting of a single equivalence class? In that case, the answer is because homology groups are abelian, so the identity is written as zero, and the group consisting of only the identity is also called "zero"
Re: Why is this homology group is zero?
Originally Posted by Tinyboss View Post

Maybe the question is why we say "zero" for the group consisting of a single equivalence class? In that case, the answer is because homology groups are abelian, so the identity is written as zero, and the group consisting of only the identity is also called "zero".

yes. zero is the convention for the identity in abelian groups. Your question is a little vague because you are not describing the triangulation of the 2 sphere that you are using and you are not describing the cycle,z.

Be assured that the first homology is zero because the sphere is simply connected.
and that my friendf is the... answer
 
Oh,thank you all! Now I'm clear about it,it is truly consisting one equivalent class.
 

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