Why is (x,e_i) a zero sequence?

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SUMMARY

An infinite orthonormal system $\{e_1, e_2, ... \} \subset H$ is closed in Hilbert space $H$ if for all $x \in H$, the equation $$||x||^2=\sum_{i=1}^{n}{|(x,e_i)|^2}$$ holds true. The conclusion that the sequence $(x,e_i)$ is a zero sequence arises from the summability of the right-hand side of the equation. Specifically, the nth term test confirms that $(x,e_i) \to 0$ as $i \to \infty$.

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mathmari
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Hey! :o

An infinite orthonormal system $\{e_1, e_2, ... \} \subset H$ is closed in $H$ iff $\forall x \in H$
$$||x||^2=\sum_{i=1}^{n}{|(x,e_i)|^2}$$

From the summability of the right part of the relation above, we conclude to that the sequence $(x,e_i)$ is a zero sequence.

Could you explain me how we conlude to that?
 
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Do you mean why $(x,e_i)\to0$ as $i\to\infty$? This follows from the nth term test.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Do you mean why $(x,e_i)\to0$ as $i\to\infty$? This follows from the nth term test.

Aha! I got it! Thank you! (Smirk)
 

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