Why was there no solution to this week's problem?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Chris L T521
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

This week's problem involved demonstrating that the Laplace-Beltrami operator $\Delta$ aligns with the standard Laplacian for real-valued functions when $k=0$. The operator is defined as $\Delta = dd^{\ast}+d^{\ast}d$, where $d^{\ast}\omega$ utilizes the Hodge star operator. The specific formulation for the Laplacian is given by $\Delta u = -\text{div}(\text{grad}u) = -\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}$. Despite the clear mathematical framework, no solutions were provided in the discussion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Riemannian manifolds
  • Familiarity with differential forms and their properties
  • Knowledge of the Hodge star operator
  • Basic concepts of the Laplacian in calculus
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Laplace-Beltrami operator in detail
  • Explore the application of the Hodge star operator in differential geometry
  • Learn about the divergence and gradient operators in the context of Riemannian manifolds
  • Investigate examples of Riemannian manifolds and their associated Laplacians
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and students studying differential geometry, particularly those focused on Riemannian geometry and the analysis of differential operators.

Chris L T521
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
913
Reaction score
0
Here is this week's problem!

-----

Problem: Let $(M,g)$ be an oriented Riemannian manifold with the standard Euclidean metric, and let $\omega\in\mathcal{A}^k(M)$ be a $k$ form. We define the Laplace-Beltrami operator as a map $\Delta:\mathcal{A}^k(M)\rightarrow\mathcal{A}^k(M)$ defined by $\Delta = dd^{\ast}+d^{\ast}d$, where
\[d^{\ast}\omega = (-1)^{n(k+1)+1}\ast d\ast \omega\]
with $\ast:\bigwedge^k T^{\ast}M\rightarrow\bigwedge^{n-k} T^{\ast}M$ denoting the Hodge star operator. When $k=0$, show that $\Delta$ agrees with the typical Laplacian on real valued functions: $\displaystyle\Delta u = -\text{div}\,(\text{grad}\,u)= -\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}$.

Remark: Note for $k=0$, $\mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, the set of continuous infinitely differentiable functions on the manifold $M$.

-----

Here's a hint/suggestion.

Use the fact that if $f\in \mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, then $d^{\ast} f = 0$. While doing this problem, assume WLOG that $\dim M = n$.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No one answered this week's problem. :(

Here's the solution.

Proof: Let $u\in\mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, and suppose WLOG that $\dim M = n$. We observe that\[\Delta u = dd^*u+d^*du = d^*du\]
since $d^*u=0$ for $u\in\mathcal{A}^0(M)$. In the case of $g$ being the standard Euclidean metric, we see that
\[\begin{aligned}d^*du &= d^*\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^i}dx^i\right)\\ &= (-1)^{2n+1}\ast d\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^i}dx^i\right)\\&= -\ast d\left(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^1}dx^2\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n+\cdots+(-1)^{n+1}\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^n}dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}\right)\\ &= -\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^i\partial x^1}dx^i\wedge dx^2\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n+\cdots+(-1)^{n+1}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^i\partial x^n}dx^i\wedge dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}\right)\\&= -\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\right)\\ &= -\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}\\ &= -\text{div}\,(\text{grad}\,u).\end{aligned}\]
This completes the proof. QEDRemark: In computing $\ast dx^i$ as seen above, the $n-1$-forms were ordered in the following fashion:
\[\begin{aligned}\ast dx^1 &= dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^2 &= -dx^1\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^3 &= dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^4 &= -dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ &{\color{white}.}\,\,\,\!\!\vdots\\ \ast dx^{n-1} &= (-1)^ndx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-2}\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^n &= (-1)^{n+1}dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}.\end{aligned}\]
The alternating sign pattern becomes obvious after computing $\ast dx^i$ in $\bigwedge^3T^{\ast}M$, $\bigwedge^4T^{\ast}M$ and $\bigwedge^5T^{\ast}M$.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
670
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
792