MHB Why was there no solution to this week's problem?

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The discussion centers around a mathematical problem involving the Laplace-Beltrami operator defined on an oriented Riemannian manifold with a standard Euclidean metric. The task is to demonstrate that for k=0, the operator aligns with the conventional Laplacian for real-valued functions. Despite the complexity of the problem, no solutions were provided by participants, indicating a lack of engagement or understanding. The hint suggests that the problem remains unresolved, emphasizing the challenge presented. Overall, the thread highlights the difficulty of applying advanced mathematical concepts in this context.
Chris L T521
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Here is this week's problem!

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Problem: Let $(M,g)$ be an oriented Riemannian manifold with the standard Euclidean metric, and let $\omega\in\mathcal{A}^k(M)$ be a $k$ form. We define the Laplace-Beltrami operator as a map $\Delta:\mathcal{A}^k(M)\rightarrow\mathcal{A}^k(M)$ defined by $\Delta = dd^{\ast}+d^{\ast}d$, where
\[d^{\ast}\omega = (-1)^{n(k+1)+1}\ast d\ast \omega\]
with $\ast:\bigwedge^k T^{\ast}M\rightarrow\bigwedge^{n-k} T^{\ast}M$ denoting the Hodge star operator. When $k=0$, show that $\Delta$ agrees with the typical Laplacian on real valued functions: $\displaystyle\Delta u = -\text{div}\,(\text{grad}\,u)= -\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}$.

Remark: Note for $k=0$, $\mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, the set of continuous infinitely differentiable functions on the manifold $M$.

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Here's a hint/suggestion.

Use the fact that if $f\in \mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, then $d^{\ast} f = 0$. While doing this problem, assume WLOG that $\dim M = n$.
 
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No one answered this week's problem. :(

Here's the solution.

Proof: Let $u\in\mathcal{A}^0(M)=C^{\infty}(M)$, and suppose WLOG that $\dim M = n$. We observe that\[\Delta u = dd^*u+d^*du = d^*du\]
since $d^*u=0$ for $u\in\mathcal{A}^0(M)$. In the case of $g$ being the standard Euclidean metric, we see that
\[\begin{aligned}d^*du &= d^*\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^i}dx^i\right)\\ &= (-1)^{2n+1}\ast d\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^i}dx^i\right)\\&= -\ast d\left(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^1}dx^2\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n+\cdots+(-1)^{n+1}\frac{\partial u}{\partial x^n}dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}\right)\\ &= -\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^i\partial x^1}dx^i\wedge dx^2\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n+\cdots+(-1)^{n+1}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^i\partial x^n}dx^i\wedge dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}\right)\\&= -\ast\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}dx^1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\right)\\ &= -\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial^2u}{(\partial x^i)^2}\\ &= -\text{div}\,(\text{grad}\,u).\end{aligned}\]
This completes the proof. QEDRemark: In computing $\ast dx^i$ as seen above, the $n-1$-forms were ordered in the following fashion:
\[\begin{aligned}\ast dx^1 &= dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^2 &= -dx^1\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^3 &= dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^4\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^4 &= -dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^5\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^n\\ &{\color{white}.}\,\,\,\!\!\vdots\\ \ast dx^{n-1} &= (-1)^ndx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-2}\wedge dx^n\\ \ast dx^n &= (-1)^{n+1}dx^1\wedge dx^2\wedge dx^3\wedge dx^4\wedge\cdots\wedge dx^{n-1}.\end{aligned}\]
The alternating sign pattern becomes obvious after computing $\ast dx^i$ in $\bigwedge^3T^{\ast}M$, $\bigwedge^4T^{\ast}M$ and $\bigwedge^5T^{\ast}M$.