So I put the function 1/(2*(cos(2*pi*x))^2+3*(sin(2*pi*x))^2) into the Wolfram indefinite integral calculator here: http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp?expr=1%2F%282*%28cos%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%2B3*%28sin%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%29&random=false. And I get an antiderivative which when evaluated from 0 to 1 is clearly equal to 0.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Now I take the same function and put it into Wolfram's definite integral calculator evaluated from 0 to 1 here: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+1%2F%282*%28cos%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%2B3*%28sin%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%29+dx+from+x%3D0+to+1. And I get 1/sqrt(6), what is going on with this discrepancy, is Wolfram wrong, or am I missing something?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Homework Help: Wolfram Integrator Error, Am I Missing Something?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**