So I put the function 1/(2*(cos(2*pi*x))^2+3*(sin(2*pi*x))^2) into the Wolfram indefinite integral calculator here: http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp?expr=1%2F%282*%28cos%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%2B3*%28sin%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%29&random=false. And I get an antiderivative which when evaluated from 0 to 1 is clearly equal to 0.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Now I take the same function and put it into Wolfram's definite integral calculator evaluated from 0 to 1 here: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+1%2F%282*%28cos%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%2B3*%28sin%282*pi*x%29%29%5E2%29+dx+from+x%3D0+to+1. And I get 1/sqrt(6), what is going on with this discrepancy, is Wolfram wrong, or am I missing something?

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# Wolfram Integrator Error, Am I Missing Something?

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