mpitluk
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For any set S, the natural numbers N and function f, if f : S → N is injective but not surjective, is S finite?
The discussion revolves around the properties of injective functions from a set S to the natural numbers N, specifically questioning whether the set S must be finite if the function is injective but not surjective. The conversation touches on concepts of cardinality, bijections, injections, and surjections, with participants exploring definitions and implications in the context of set theory.
Participants express differing views on the implications of injectivity and surjectivity regarding the finiteness of sets. There is no consensus on whether the conditions discussed necessarily imply that S is finite, as some examples provided suggest otherwise.
Participants reference various definitions and properties related to injections, surjections, and cardinality, but there is a lack of clarity on how these definitions apply universally. The discussion reflects a range of mathematical backgrounds, leading to varying levels of understanding and interpretation of the concepts involved.
mpitluk said:For any set S, the natural numbers N and function f, if f : S → N is injective but not surjective, is S finite?
mpitluk said:Sorry, I'm not sure what that tells me. I have VERY little mathematics training, but ended up taking a math-logic course heavy on notation and dependent on higher-math knowledge.
It seems to me what you are saying, though I am probably dead wrong, is that the set of odd naturals is in a bijection with the naturals. And thus, they have the same cardinality. But, I'm asking about a case in which S is not surjective.
mpitluk said:Wow. I see where I went wrong. What I meant to ask, while trying to get the notation down, was: if you have a set A that doesn't have a bijection with a set S such that |S| = |N|, then is A finite? It seems to me it would be (by definition, really).
I was referring to the following definition: for a set S and the set of naturals N, if |S| < |N|, then is S finite. I see where I went wrong. I am just trying to define a finite set using the terms "bijection," "surjection," and "injection."DonAntonio said:And "by definition" of what?
DonAntonio
DonAntonio said:No. S could be, say the set of all real numbers, which cannot mapped bijectively with the naturals...
DonAntonio
mpitluk said:I was referring to the following definition: for a set S and the set of naturals N, if |S| < |N|, then is S finite. I see where I went wrong. I am just trying to define a finite set using the terms "bijection," "surjection," and "injection."
Might this be right: if for every mapping f between S and N, f : S → N is not surjective, then S is finite.
DonAntonio said:I guess that could work, but why do you seem to enjoy making things messy? Go to the following definition:
"A set S is finite iff EVERY proper subset of S has a cardinality strictly smaller than that of S".
Voila
DonAntonio