Zero Point: Solving for it and what it is.

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Zero Point refers to the equilibrium point where gravitational and electromagnetic forces acting on two objects are equal. The position of this point depends on the masses and charges of the objects, influenced by the inverse square law. Equations are provided to calculate the Zero Point based on the distances and masses or charges involved. The discussion also touches on concepts like holistic quantities in the universe, Gauss's Law regarding charge neutrality, and the nature of magnetic fields. Overall, the conversation explores the theoretical implications of Zero Point in physics and its relationship to broader concepts in the universe.
  • #31
Furthermore, if the invariance given by

\vec{a} \cdot \vec{r} = c^2

is inserted into the simple formula for angular frequency

\vec{a} \cdot \vec{r} = \left( \frac{2 \omega}{\pi} \right)^2
 
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  • #32
Are you not violating the uncertainty principle with a unitless radius of 1? At those levels you cannot suppose a particle with a definite radius, can you?
Regards
EP
Antonio Lao said:
therefore the above definition of angular frequency implies a unitless radius of 1.
 
  • #33
Remember it is not a wave, it is not a particle, it is an energetic system, whose state cannot be determined completely
Regards
RP
Antonio Lao said:
The circumference of a circle is 2 \pi r, therefore the above definition of angular frequency implies a unitless radius of 1.
 
  • #34
I think, in physics, the unitless radius is replace by the phase angle of a wave. a right triangle of sides 3-4-5 always has the same complementary angles regardless of how the sides are scaled as long as the ratio remains 3-4-5. The invariance of the phase angle is a scaling transformation invariance applicable to all similar right triangles at any given scale. And all trigonometric functions is the ratio of two sides of a particular right triangle. In a sense, it is applying the Pythagorean theorem over and over again. This theorem is the basis for the definition of a length and a distance and any higher dimensional metric.
 
  • #35
If I have in mind, at the background Euler relation, in a certain sense I can follow you, but then in it, phase angle is quite different from the radius or amplitude of that wave.
Regards
EP
Antonio Lao said:
I think, in physics, the unitless radius is replace by the phase angle of a wave...In a sense, it is applying the Pythagorean theorem over and over again. This theorem is the basis for the definition of a length and a distance and any higher dimensional metric.
 
  • #36
The existence of a minimum triangular surface area of 1/2 corresponding to a unit square does not depend on the curvature of spacetime where the surface is embedded and clearly demonstrated in an Euclidean geometry using the parallel axiom.
 
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  • #37
The Euler's identities are given by

e^{+ i \theta} = cos \theta + i sin \theta

and

e^{- i \theta} = cos \theta - i sin \theta

A complex number z is given by

z = r \left( cos \theta + i sin \theta \right)

So Euler's identities is the same as when r=1 and

z = e^{ i \theta}
 
  • #38
But the complex number is defined as z = x + iy. This is like adding apples to oranges where x is an apple and iy is an orange. Physically, I still failed to understand this but mathematically, I guess, anything is possible.
 

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