I was reading about the renormalization of ##\phi^4## theory and it was mentioned that in order to renormalize the 2-point function ##\Gamma^{(2)}(p)## we add the counterterm :
\delta \mathcal{L}_1 = -\dfrac{gm^2}{32\pi \epsilon^2}\phi^2
to the Lagrangian, which should give rise to a...