Generally speaking, a quantum theory of gravitation should reproduce general relativity in the appropriate limit. General relativity then reproduces Newtonian gravitation in its appropriate limit.temprano said:TL;DR: Should a quantum theory of gravitation, as a first approximation, reproduce Newton’s formula?
Should a quantum theory of gravitation, as a first approximation, reproduce Newton’s formula?
The question refers to reproducing Newton's formula without the mediation of GR.Matterwave said:Generally speaking, a quantum theory of gravitation should reproduce general relativity in the appropriate limit. General relativity then reproduces Newtonian gravitation in its appropriate limit.
And I gave you the more likely scenario, that it would be a chain: Quantum Gravity --> GR --> Newton.temprano said:The question refers to reproducing Newton's formula without the mediation of GR.
In PF we require some effort to post a question. Give us context. What have you understood? what have you found so far outside PF?temprano said:TL;DR: Should a quantum theory of gravitation, as a first approximation, reproduce Newton’s formula?
Should a quantum theory of gravitation, as a first approximation, reproduce Newton’s formula?
It might not produce the formula but something numerically almost equivalent.temprano said:The question refers to reproducing Newton's formula without the mediation of GR.
My current understanding is that General Relativity (GR) tends to reproduce Newtonian results in specific cases—such as the solar system, with the notable exception of Mercury—and that quantum theory, in turn, should reproduce the results of GR.pines-demon said:In PF we require some effort to post a question. Give us context. What have you understood? what have you found so far outside PF?
That's not a serious proposal, as it misses the whole point. In QM, systems are defined by quantum states, not by the precise, well defined position of each particle.temprano said:My current understanding is that General Relativity (GR) tends to reproduce Newtonian results in specific cases—such as the solar system, with the notable exception of Mercury—and that quantum theory, in turn, should reproduce the results of GR.
Outside of the Physics Forums (PF) community, I discussed this topic and heard a proposal: if one defines the quantum wavelength as the distance between two gravitationally interacting bodies—while disregarding electrons and focusing solely on nucleons, such that every nucleon in body A interacts with every nucleon in body B (and vice versa) via an elementary wave—then, as a first-order approximation, one arrives at Newton’s formula, albeit with a function in place of the gravitational constant $G$. This caught my attention, and the idea has remained on my mind as a point of curiosity. I was unable to follow this line of reasoning to its conclusion; I could neither derive Newton’s formula nor determine whether such an approach is even viable.