Understanding the Orbit of Kapler's Law and its Relation to Potential Energy

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In the discussion about Kapler's Law and potential energy, participants question why the orbit of particles is described as a straight line in a specific problem. The problem indicates that particles move along the x and y axes, suggesting their linear trajectory is defined by the problem's parameters. There is a misconception regarding potential energy at r=0, where it is clarified that potential approaches negative infinity rather than positive infinity. Additionally, the relationship between potential energy and attraction is discussed, noting that a positive potential indicates attraction, while gravitational potential is negative. The conversation emphasizes the importance of interpreting the problem's wording accurately to understand the dynamics involved.
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Hello,
In question 3(b) in the following file
http://phstudy.technion.ac.il/~wn114101/hw/wn2010_hw09.pdf

Why the orbit will be a straight line?
I think that when the particles are coming to r=0 the potential will be infinity, isn't that so?
So the energy will be infinity and e will be infinity... please help me...
thank you

AND ONE MORE THING: if the potential is a/r^2 (>0) then then the two objects will attract each other, right? But in the Gravitational law (-Gm1m2/r^2) the potential is <0 and the objects will attract to each other
 
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Cosmossos said:
Hello,
In question 3(b) in the following file
http://phstudy.technion.ac.il/~wn114101/hw/wn2010_hw09.pdf

Why the orbit will be a straight line?
The problem statement explicitly states the particles move "on the x direction" and "on the y direction". Presumably they mean on the x and y axes; it is not worded quite properly but I can't imagine it meaning anything else.

So, each particle moves in straight line simply because the problem statement says that they do. What would actually cause this to happen is not important.

I think that when the particles are coming to r=0 the potential will be infinity, isn't that so?
No, it would be negative infinity in this example.
 
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So is there some elegant way to do this or am I just supposed to follow my nose and sub the Taylor expansions for terms in the two boost matrices under the assumption ##v,w\ll 1##, then do three ugly matrix multiplications and get some horrifying kludge for ##R## and show that the product of ##R## and its transpose is the identity matrix with det(R)=1? Without loss of generality I made ##\mathbf{v}## point along the x-axis and since ##\mathbf{v}\cdot\mathbf{w} = 0## I set ##w_1 = 0## to...

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