A 1D Quantum Well - Different width "naming" gives different result ?

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The discussion centers on the differences in wavefunction results for a one-dimensional quantum well based on varying boundary conditions. In the first case, the wavefunction is derived from boundaries at -L/2 to L/2, leading to an imaginary component due to the factor of 'i' in the sine function. In the second case, with boundaries from 0 to L, the wavefunction remains real and is expressed solely in terms of sine functions. Despite these differences, normalization of the wavefunctions shows that they can represent the same physical state, as they differ only by a complex factor. Ultimately, the key takeaway is that while the forms of the wavefunctions may differ, they can yield equivalent physical interpretations when properly normalized.
Solmyros
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Boundary conditions give different result depending on whether the quantum well is defined from 0 to L or from -L/2 to +L/2.
Greetings everyone,

Exactly as the title says. I am reaching to something strange and I do not know what I am missing. It must be something obvious...

case 1: -L/2 to L/2

After taking the Schrodinger equation and considering potential equal to zero inside we reach at this: $$Ψ=A×e^{ikz}+B×e^{- ikz}$$
case 1.png

Boundary conditions
Outside the well the potential is assumed infinite, so the wavefunction is equal to zero:
  • $$\Psi = 0, when \left|{z}\right|>\frac{L}{2}$$
  • $$Ψ(−\frac{L}{2})=0 \ (1)$$
  • $$Ψ(+\frac{L}{2})=0 \ (2)$$
From 1. we have : $$B=−A×e^{−ikL} \ (3)$$

Substituting (3) in 2. we get: $$k=\frac{n \times \pi}{L}, where \ n=0,1,2,... (4)$$

Therefore from (3) we get: $$B=−A \times e^{−inπ}$$

And finally, if $$n=2m, where \ m=0,1,2,...$$ we get from the original Schrodinger Equation: $$\Psi_{even}(z) = A \times ( e^{i k z} - e^{- i k z)} = 2 i A \sin{(kz)} \ (5)$$

case 2: 0 to L

After taking the Schrodinger equation and considering potential equal to zero inside we reach at this: $$Ψ=A'×e^{ikz}+B'×e^{- ikz}$$

case 2.png


Boundary conditions
Outside the well the potential is assumed infinite, so the wavefunction is equal to zero:
  • $$\Psi = 0, \ when \ z \le 0 \ or \ z \ge L$$
  • $$Ψ(0)=0 \ (6)$$
  • $$Ψ(L)=0 \ (7)$$
From 1. we have : $$B'=−A'$$ (8)
So, we get from the original Schrodinger Equation: $$\Psi(z) = A' \times ( e^{i k z} - e^{- i k z)} = A' \sin{kz} \ (9)$$

and

$$Ψ(L)=0 = A' \sin{kL} \ which \ gives \ k=\frac{n \times \pi}{L} \ (10), where \ n=0,1,2,... (\ like \ before)$$

But, now if $$n=2m, where \ m=0,1,2,...$$ we get $$\Psi_{even}(z) = A' \sin({\frac {2m \pi }{L}z}) \ (11)$$

Normalization will eventually give the same amplitude, BUT, on the first case the wavefunction is imaginary. This added 'i' is what buffles me.

Thank you in advance for your help.
 

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The basis eigenfunctions have an arbitrary complex factor of modulus ##1##. You can take this to be ##1## or ##i## or any other unit complex number.
 
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Wave functions with differing coefficients, real or complex of any magnitude, represent the same wave function. Normalization is required if observational probabilities are desired. Normalization makes them equal.
 
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