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Hi.
I came across http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_partial_derivative_test" page on Wikipedia regarding the 2nd derivative test. It says that if the determinant of the 2x2 Hessian is negative, then
f_{xx} f_{yy} < f_{xy}^2
So far, so good...
But then it draws, seemingly from the above statement only, that if one of the non-mixed 2nd order derivatives is negative, the other must be positive. I don't see why this MUST be the case. Isn't it quite possible that they are both negative, but the resulting inequality is still valid (since the mixed partial is still bigger...).
Thanks...
I came across http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_partial_derivative_test" page on Wikipedia regarding the 2nd derivative test. It says that if the determinant of the 2x2 Hessian is negative, then
f_{xx} f_{yy} < f_{xy}^2
So far, so good...
But then it draws, seemingly from the above statement only, that if one of the non-mixed 2nd order derivatives is negative, the other must be positive. I don't see why this MUST be the case. Isn't it quite possible that they are both negative, but the resulting inequality is still valid (since the mixed partial is still bigger...).
Thanks...
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