Plaetean
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I'm working through some intro QFT using Peskin accompanied by David Tong's notes, and have a question over notation. From Peskin I have:
[tex] x^\mu=x^0+x^1+x^2+x^3=(t,\mathbf{x})[/tex]
and
[tex] x_\mu=g^{\mu\nu}x^\nu=x^0-x^1-x^2-x^3=(t,-\mathbf{x})[/tex]
so
[tex] p_\mu p^\mu=g^{\mu\nu}p^\mu p^\nu=E^2-|\mathbf{p}|^2[/tex] with
[tex] \partial_\mu=\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}=\bigg(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^0},\mathbf{\nabla}\bigg)[/tex]
Does this mean that:
[tex] \partial^\mu=\frac{\partial}{\partial x_\mu}=\bigg(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^0},-\mathbf{\nabla}\bigg)[/tex]
and if so, is there any reason why the upper/lower index flips when expressing a derivative compared with when writing just a normal vector? It's a bit of a pain when you're starting out so I'm guessing there must be a good reason for it that emerges later.
I'd also like someone to just confirm that I've taken this derivative properly (might seem a bit laboured but I want to make triple sure I've got the notation correct right away):
If we have a Lagrangian density of
[tex] L=\frac{1}{2}\partial^\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi[/tex]the derivative with respect to dphi is:[tex] \frac{\partial L}{\partial(\partial_\mu\phi)}=\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}\partial^\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\partial_\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\partial_\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}(\partial_\mu\phi)^2[/tex]
[tex] =g^{\mu\nu}\partial_\mu\phi=\partial^\mu\phi[/tex]
Thanks as always to you good folk.
[tex] x^\mu=x^0+x^1+x^2+x^3=(t,\mathbf{x})[/tex]
and
[tex] x_\mu=g^{\mu\nu}x^\nu=x^0-x^1-x^2-x^3=(t,-\mathbf{x})[/tex]
so
[tex] p_\mu p^\mu=g^{\mu\nu}p^\mu p^\nu=E^2-|\mathbf{p}|^2[/tex] with
[tex] \partial_\mu=\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}=\bigg(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^0},\mathbf{\nabla}\bigg)[/tex]
Does this mean that:
[tex] \partial^\mu=\frac{\partial}{\partial x_\mu}=\bigg(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^0},-\mathbf{\nabla}\bigg)[/tex]
and if so, is there any reason why the upper/lower index flips when expressing a derivative compared with when writing just a normal vector? It's a bit of a pain when you're starting out so I'm guessing there must be a good reason for it that emerges later.
I'd also like someone to just confirm that I've taken this derivative properly (might seem a bit laboured but I want to make triple sure I've got the notation correct right away):
If we have a Lagrangian density of
[tex] L=\frac{1}{2}\partial^\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi[/tex]the derivative with respect to dphi is:[tex] \frac{\partial L}{\partial(\partial_\mu\phi)}=\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}\partial^\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\partial_\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}\bigg(\partial_\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi\bigg)=\frac{1}{2}g^{\mu\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial_\mu}(\partial_\mu\phi)^2[/tex]
[tex] =g^{\mu\nu}\partial_\mu\phi=\partial^\mu\phi[/tex]
Thanks as always to you good folk.