A Matrix with Orthonormal Columns

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the columns of an n x n matrix M form an orthonormal set if and only if M-1 = MT. Participants explore the implications of this relationship through examples and mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to analyze a specific 2 x 2 matrix to understand the conditions under which the inverse equals the transpose. Questions arise regarding the implications of the determinant and the relationships between the matrix elements.

Discussion Status

There is a mix of attempts to clarify the mathematical relationships involved, with some participants suggesting alternative approaches to simplify the problem. Guidance is offered in the form of hints and definitions, but no consensus has been reached on the best method to proceed.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion over specific examples and their relevance to the problem, indicating a need for clearer connections between the concepts of orthonormality and matrix inverses.

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Homework Statement
Let M be an n x n matrix. Prove that the columns of M form an orthonormal set if and only if M-1 = MT.

The attempt at a solution
Let's consider the following 2 x 2 matrix

[tex]\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}[/tex]

If the inverse equals its transpose, i.e.

[tex]\frac{1}{ad - bc} \begin{pmatrix} d & -b \\ -c & a \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} a & c \\ b & d \end{pmatrix}[/tex]

then

[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> a & = \frac{d}{ad - bc} \\<br /> b & = \frac{-c}{ad - bc} \\<br /> c & = \frac{-b}{ad - bc} \\<br /> d & = \frac{a}{ad - bc}<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

or rather that ad - bc = 1. Does this mean that ab + cd = 0? Not necessarily: Consider a = 2 and b = c = d = 1 so that ad - bc = 2 - 1 = 1 but ab + cd = 2 + 1 = 3. What gives?

And doeas ab + cd = 0 imply the equations above for a, b, c and d? I think not.

I'm stumped.
 
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Just multiply out the matrices and think.
 
[tex]\left| ad - bc \right|=1[/tex], but ad - bc may not necessarily be 1. For example, the columns of [tex]\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}[/tex] are orthonormal, but [tex]det \begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}=-1.[/tex] I guess it would be easier to work from the relation [tex]\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a & c \\ b & d \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}[/tex], which follows from the hypothesis that the transpose of M is its inverse. The equations should be simpler to work with. In general, the product of any 2 x 2 matrix M and its transpose [tex]M^T[/tex] may be expressed as : [tex]\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \times \begin{pmatrix} a & c \\ b & d \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} (r_1,r_1) & (r_1,r_2) \\ (r_2,r_1) & (r_2,r_2) \end{pmatrix}[/tex], where [tex]r_i[/tex] denotes the ith row of M, and [tex](r_i,r_j)[/tex] denotes the scalar product of [tex]r_i[/tex] and [tex]r_j[/tex]. Now equate the latter expression with the identity matrix. This shows that the rows of M are orthonormal, and the argument can be extended to any (n x n) matrix. To show that the columns are also orthonormal, we could use the fact that if [tex]MM^T = I[/tex], then [tex]M^TM=I[/tex], and thence express the product [tex]M^TM[/tex] as we did above.
 
Hi e(ho0n3! :smile:

Why make it so complicated? :rolleyes:

In problems like this, just write out the definition!
e(ho0n3 said:
Let M be an n x n matrix. Prove that the columns of M form an orthonormal set if and only if M-1 = MT.

Hint: MMT = I means, for any i and j, ∑aikajk = Iij.

Put i = j: then … ?

Put i ≠ j: then … ? :smile:
 
e(ho0n3 said:
Homework Statement
Let M be an n x n matrix. Prove that the columns of M form an orthonormal set if and only if M-1 = MT.

The attempt at a solution
Let's consider the following 2 x 2 matrix

[tex]\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}[/tex]

If the inverse equals its transpose, i.e.

[tex]\frac{1}{ad - bc} \begin{pmatrix} d & -b \\ -c & a \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} a & c \\ b & d \end{pmatrix}[/tex]

then

[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> a & = \frac{d}{ad - bc} \\<br /> b & = \frac{-c}{ad - bc} \\<br /> c & = \frac{-b}{ad - bc} \\<br /> d & = \frac{a}{ad - bc}<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

or rather that ad - bc = 1. Does this mean that ab + cd = 0? Not necessarily: Consider a = 2 and b = c = d = 1 so that ad - bc = 2 - 1 = 1 but ab + cd = 2 + 1 = 3. What gives?

And doeas ab + cd = 0 imply the equations above for a, b, c and d? I think not.

I'm stumped.

I don't understand your point with this example. The inverse of
[tex]A= \left[\begin{array}{cc}2 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right][/tex]
is
[tex]A^{-1}= \left[\begin{array}{cc}2 & -1 \\ -1 & 1\end{array}\right][/tex]
NOT the transpose of A and so has nothing to do with this problem.
 
OK. Looks like I really messed up on this one. Thank you all for the pointers.
 

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