A problem in understanding distributions exercise

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    Distributions Exercise
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding a specific exercise from "A Guide to Distribution Theory and Fourier Transforms," particularly focusing on the definition of distributions in terms of integrals. Participants are seeking clarification on the meaning of an integral expression presented in the exercise.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion regarding an integral that appears without an integrand, questioning if they are missing something.
  • Another participant suggests that the integral may involve integrating over two disconnected ranges, specifically (-∞, -a) and (a, ∞).
  • A third participant confirms the interpretation by restating the integral as the sum of two separate integrals over the specified ranges.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the interpretation of the integral as involving two disconnected ranges, but the initial confusion remains unaddressed in terms of broader implications or definitions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not clarify the underlying assumptions or definitions that may affect the interpretation of the integral, nor does it resolve the initial participant's confusion about the lack of an integrand.

Goldbeetle
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I'm reading the first chapters of "A Guide to Distribution Theory and Fourier Transforms".
On page 10, Exercises 3,6,7 the distribution is defined in terms of integrals. The first one is always without integrand (there's only the integral sign). What does that mean? Am I missing something? The book can be consulted online in Google Books.

Thanks for any help!

Goldbeetle
 
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I think it is just you intergrate over two disconnected ranges (-inf,-a) + (+a,+inf).
 
Exactly

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{-a}+\int_{a}^{\infty}\;f(x)dx=\int_{-\infty}^{-a}\;f(x)\;dx+\int_{a}^{\infty}\;f(x)\;dx[/tex]
 
OK, thanks.
 

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