A problem Simple harmonic motion

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A particle of mass 10g is placed in a potential field described by V = (50x^2 + 100) erg/g, and the goal is to determine the frequency of oscillation. The force is derived from the potential, leading to the equation F = -dU/dx, resulting in K = 100. The angular frequency is calculated as ω = (K/m)^(1/2), yielding an initial result of 10^(1/2). However, the textbook provides a different angular frequency of 100^(1/2), prompting confusion about the discrepancy. The discussion highlights the need to convert units from erg to joules and grams to kilograms for accurate calculations.
harini07
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Homework Statement


A particle of mass 10g is placed in potential field given by V= (50x^2+100)erg/g. what will be the frequency of oscillation?

Homework Equations


n(frequency)=2pi(K/m)^1/2

The Attempt at a Solution


F= -dU/dx . given is potential field. so dU/dx= (2*50x +0)=-100x. equating it with -Kx(since F= -Kx) , K=100. so omega(angular frequency)=(K/m)^1/2= (100/10)^1/2= 10^1/2. but the answer as given in the key of my textbook is 100^1/2 for angular frequency, hows that possible? where did i go wrong?
 
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harini07 said:

Homework Statement


A particle of mass 10g is placed in potential field given by V= (50x^2+100)erg/g. what will be the frequency of oscillation?

Homework Equations


n(frequency)=2pi(K/m)^1/2

The Attempt at a Solution


F= -dU/dx . given is potential field. so dU/dx= (2*50x +0)=-100x. equating it with -Kx(since F= -Kx) , K=100. so omega(angular frequency)=(K/m)^1/2= (100/10)^1/2= 10^1/2. but the answer as given in the key of my textbook is 100^1/2 for angular frequency, hows that possible? where did i go wrong?
You need to convert erg into joule and gram into kilogram.
 
cnh1995 said:
You need to convert erg into joule and gram into kilogram.
even then I'm unable to arrive at the answer :/ erg/g in J/kg will be 10^-4 .how to proceed?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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