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A question about our prodominently matter universe.

  1. Oct 15, 2012 #1
    It was believed that at the big bang matter and anti-matter should have been produced in equal amounts which would have annihilated shortly after, leaving no matter or anti-matter.

    A theory was developed which is now favoured that there was an asymmetry between the amount of matter to anti-matter produced in favour of matter by approximately 1%.

    I read this morning that there is some experimental verification for this predicted amount with the collision of protons and anti-protons, which produce 1% more muons than anti-muons.

    I have always been bias towards the asymmetry theory, not least because the big bang would have had to of produced 100 times the amount of matter that we see in our universe today, and 100 times the amount of anti-matter. The inflationary period starts to look messy.

    I have wondered, if the singularity that produced the big bang had a directional spin, wouldn't the matter produced exhibit the same directional spin?

    In other words, is it possible that whether we lived in a matter or anti-matter universe would depend upon the direction of spin of the singularity from whence our universe came?

    Your thoughts please.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 15, 2012 #2
    As singularity is not a point (in both closed and open-infinite universe scenarios), how can you define "spin"?

    You can imagine only vortexes in early Universe, however, AFAIK, there are severe constrains on their momentum of them. Early Universe was very homogeneous towards the Big Bang. In most inflation scenarios, Universe was almost absolutely homogeneous (as it was empty in false vacuum era)
     
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