Comanche said:
Dear everyone,
I have a simple question about the helicity of photon. The helicity operator is defined as
[tex]\hat{\mathbf{S}} \hat{\mathbf{p}}/|\mathbf{p}|[/tex]. How to show the photon has +1/-1 helicity eigenvalue from this definition?
Thank you ~~
It's
[tex]\chi = \vec{\mathbf{S}} \hat{\mathbf{p}} = \vec{\mathbf{S}} \frac{\vec{\mathbf{p}}}{|\vec{\mathbf{p}}|}[/tex]
The argument is rather simple. First we know that for the photon we have spin
s = 1 and therefore
sz = 0, ±1. But the longitudinal polarization is absent for massles vector particles, therefore only
sz = ±1 remains.
(*)
Now the next step is to fix the arbitary axis
ez w.r.t. which we define the spin orientation; we set
[tex]\hat{{e}}_z = \hat{{p}}[/tex]
Now the photon is moving into z-direction and we have
[tex]\vec{\mathbf{S}} \vec{\mathbf{p}} = \mathbf{S}_x\mathbf{p}_x + \mathbf{S}_y\mathbf{p}_y + \mathbf{S}_z\mathbf{p}_z \to s_z p_z = \pm p[/tex]
where on the r.h.s
sz and
pz are the eigenvalues w.r.t. the new reference frame with
px = py = 0
(*) But I guess this simple algebra is not really your question I and I gues you want to understand
why for massless particles only these two spin orientations survive
EDIT: There are two different ways to find the two physical helicity states of the photon, but I don't see how they are related; therefore I started a new thread
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=644149