A statement equivalent to the definition of limits at infinity?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equivalence of two statements regarding limits at infinity, specifically \(\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f\left(x\right)=L\) and the condition \(\exists c>0\exists M>0\left(\sup\left\{ \left|x\left(f\left(x\right)-L\right)\right|:x\geq c\right\} \leq M\right)\). The example function discussed is \(f(x)=\frac{1}{\log(x)}\) with \(L=0\). Participants clarify the distinction between the limit as \(x\) approaches infinity and the limit at infinity, emphasizing that infinity is not a real number.

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phoenixthoth
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I was fiddling around with the definition of limits at infinity and believe I have found a statement that is equivalent to the definition.

So the question is this: are the following two statements equivalent?

(1) \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f\left(x\right)=L

(2) \exists c>0\exists M>0\left(\sup\left\{ \left|x\left(f\left(x\right)-L\right)\right|:x\geq c\right\} \leq M\right)
 
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Consider f(x)=\frac{1}{\log(x)} and L=0.
 
phoenixthoth said:
I was fiddling around with the definition of limits at infinity and believe I have found a statement that is equivalent to the definition.

So the question is this: are the following two statements equivalent?

(1) \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f\left(x\right)=L

(2) \exists c>0\exists M>0\left(\sup\left\{ \left|x\left(f\left(x\right)-L\right)\right|:x\geq c\right\} \leq M\right)

Just to nitpick a bit: you're thinking of the limit _as x tends to infinity_, and not quite the limit _at infinity_ , since infinity is not a real number ( at least not a standard real ).
 

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