About the Bargmann-Wigner Method

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SUMMARY

The Bargmann-Wigner Method is a technique used to derive wave equations for higher spins, specifically for j=1, 3/2, and 2. This method employs a Dirac-like equation to operate on wave functions, as illustrated in equations 2.2 and 2.3 of the referenced ArXiv paper (1208.0644). Notably, equation 2.4 provides the wave function for j=1, which is derived using Dirac Gamma matrices, typically associated with Fermions, to formulate a bosonic wave equation. The discussion emphasizes the need for clarity on how to derive the terms in equation 2.4.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Bargmann-Wigner Method
  • Familiarity with Dirac-like equations
  • Knowledge of Clifford algebra and multi-spinors
  • Basic concepts of quantum mechanics and wave functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of wave equations using the Bargmann-Wigner Method
  • Explore the implications of Dirac Gamma matrices in bosonic wave equations
  • Investigate the expansion of multi-spinors in Clifford algebra
  • Review the specific equations (2.1, 2.2, 2.3, and 2.4) from ArXiv: 1208.0644 for deeper understanding
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Physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum mechanics and particle physics, as well as researchers interested in higher spin theories and wave function derivations.

HeavyWater
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By example, show how one obtains a Bargmann-Wigner wave function.
See Reference: ArXiv: 1208.0644

The Bargmann Wigner Method seems to be a means to obtain wave equations for higher spins, I.e. j=1, 3/2, 2, etc. In this method, one uses a Dirac-like equation to operate on a wave function. For example, equations, 2.2 and 2.3 show Dirac-like equations that operate on wave functions. Usually in QM, we SOLVE for the wave function, but to my surprise equation 2.4 GIVES the wave function (here for j=1). In addition, I am surprised to see Dirac Gamma matrices (which pertain to Fermions) in an equation that will be used to derive a bosonic (j=1) wave equation. Can you talk about how someone came up with equation 2.4 and show how one derives one (or both) of the terms in 2.4.
 
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I know the responders are busy...but no one has responded to the last sentence in my query--it's about how to arrive at both terms in equation 2.4 in the (above) specified reference. Please read it again--if you don't know the answer it's ok to say so.
 
I have already answered your question. Read the argument which led to Eq(2.1) in
https://www.physicsforums.com/threa...theory-from-the-ground-up.941219/post-5954706Any totally symmetric (BW) multi-spinor can be expanded in terms of the symmetric subset \{ \gamma^{\mu} C , \sigma^{\mu\nu}C \} of the Clifford algebra
\Gamma^{a}C = \big\{ \{ C , i\gamma_{5}C , \gamma^{\mu}\gamma_{5}C \} , \{ \gamma^{\mu}C , \sigma^{\mu\nu}C \}\big\} .
The spin-1 case that you are talking about is even simpler because the multi-spinor is of rank-2. So, you can expand \Psi_{mn}(x) = \Psi_{nm}(x) as follow
\Psi_{mn}(x) = \left( \gamma^{\mu}C \right)_{mn} \ B_{\mu}(x) + \frac{1}{2} \left( \sigma^{\mu\nu}C \right)_{mn} \ G_{\mu\nu}(x) .
 
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Seeing these great responses just reminds me of my frustrations being a small time physicist. Thank you Samalkhaiat and others for taking the time and patience to answer my questions.
 

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