Abstract algebra proof involving prime numbers

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving a statement related to prime numbers in the context of abstract algebra. Specifically, it states that if \( p \) is a prime number and \( p \) divides \( a^n \), then \( p^n \) must also divide \( a^n \).

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss relevant theorems regarding prime divisibility and explore the implications of these theorems on the given statement. There is an examination of the relationship between \( p \), \( a \), and \( n \), with attempts to rewrite the expressions for clarity.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the proof structure and have raised questions about the readability and clarity of the original poster's reasoning. There seems to be a progression towards a clearer understanding of how to apply the theorems to reach the conclusion, although explicit consensus on the correctness of the proof has not been established.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of readability in the original proof attempt, which may affect the clarity of the reasoning process. The discussion reflects an ongoing exploration of the assumptions and definitions involved in the proof.

christinamora
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The question states prove,
If p is prime and p | a^n then p^n | a^n

I am pretty sure I have i just may need someone to help clean it up.

There are two relevant theorems i have for this.
the first says p is prime if and if p has the property that if p | ab then p | a or p | b

the second one is that if p is prime and p | a1a2a3...an, then p must divide one of the a_i.

so for the proof i am assuming p | a^n which i can rewrite as

p | a*a*a...an-1*an. so this is saying p(q) = a*a*a...an-1*an for some integer q.

now if I look at p^n | a^n that's the same as

p*p*p...pn-1*pn | a*a*a...an-1*an

well p(p*p*p...pn-1*p) | a*a*a...an-1*an

is that the way to go?
Or maybe before when i had that p(q) = a*a*a...an-1*an for some integer q.

just set q = p^n-1 so that p(q) = p^n.

I feel like the later way should do it.
Is this right?
 
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It's actually hard to know whether you have it or not. Because that's pretty unreadable. If you know that "if p is prime and p | a1a2a3...an then p must divide one of the a_i" and you apply that to p | a^n=a*a*a*...a (n times), what do you conclude about the divisibility of a by p? It's just the special case where all of the a_i are equal to a.
 
ok so it is just a special case, so if p | a^n then the fact that p should divide one of the a_i means simply p|a, since every a_i is a.

so from p |a^n implies p |a .

so if p divides a we have that p(q) = a for some integer q.

since we have an equation, i can raise both sides to the n power,
so now i have p^n(q^n) = a^n which implies p^n | a^n.

that looks like it should be good right?
 
Last edited:
christinamora said:
ok so it is just a special case, so if p | a^n then the fact that p should divide one of the a_i means simply p|a, since every a_i is a.

so from p |a^n implies p |a .

so if p divides a we have that p(q) = a for some integer q.

since we have an equation, i can raise both sides to the n power,
so now i have p^n(q^n) = a^n which implies p^n | a^n.

that looks like it should be good right?

Now that looks right.
 

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