Acceleration in an inertial reference frame

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An object's acceleration being zero in one inertial reference frame does not imply that its acceleration is zero in all other inertial reference frames, as acceleration can vary depending on the frame of reference. Similarly, if an object's velocity is zero in one inertial reference frame, it does not mean its velocity is zero in all other frames, since velocity is relative. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the definition and properties of inertial reference frames. It suggests consulting additional resources for a deeper understanding of these concepts. Overall, the relationship between acceleration and velocity in different inertial frames is complex and requires careful consideration.
Swag ranger
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Homework Statement


3. (a) If an object's acceleration is zero in one inertial reference frame then is its acceleration zero in all other inertial reference frames? (b) If an object's velocity is zero in one inertial reference frame then is its velocity zero in all other inertial reference frames?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I think it's going to be zero in both questions both I'm not so sure and I need an explanation
 
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Hi Swag ranger,

Welcome to Physics Forums.

What do you know about inertial reference frames? How are they defined?
 
gneill said:
Hi Swag ranger,

Welcome to Physics Forums.

What do you know about inertial reference frames? How are they defined?
An object that does not accelerate
 
Swag ranger said:
An object that does not accelerate
No, not quite. A reference frame is not necessarily associated with a particular object. It's a coordinate system that has particular properties (particularly with respect to other inertial reference frames).

Suggestion: Take a look at the Wikipedia article regarding Inertial Reference Frames:

Inertial frame of reference - Wikipedia
 

Thread 'Magnitude of buoyant force in fluids of different densities'

The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?
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