Hi,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

in the text I am reading I found the following implicit definition of an adjoint transformation:

[tex]\overline{f}( \textbf{a}) \ast \textbf{b} = \textbf{a} \ast f(\textbf{b})[/tex]

then it is said that [tex]\overline{f^{-1}} = (\overline{f})^{-1}[/tex]. Basically the inverse and ajoint are interchangeable, and this property is (supposed to be) easily shown from the definition above.

Unfortunately I have problems figuring out how to prove it. Any ideas?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Adjoint transformation (inverse)

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**