Air resistance/velocity problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter Kawakaze
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Air
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
6 replies · 4K views
Kawakaze
Messages
144
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



A ball is projected vertically upwards with an initial speed of 20ms^−1 at a
height of 1.5m above the ground. Model the ball as a sphere of diameter D, mass m, and
assume that the quadratic model of air resistance applies.

Show that the component of acceleration at time t in the upward
direction is given by
a(t) = − g/b^2 x (v^2+b^2)

where v is the speed of the ball at time t, and b2 = mg/0.2D2.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



There are 2 forces acting on the sphere, its weight and the air resistance, both acting vertically downwards. I used Newtons 2nd law

ma = mg + 0.2D^2v^2

I figure that the question involves rearranging this expression in terms of a. Now I am stuck. As I can't rearrange this expression to get the one given in the question, this leads me to believe my approach is wrong
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
If you divide both sides of the equation by m to isolate a, after first substituting .2 d^2 =mg/b^2, as given, you've got it! The minus sign in the solution assumes downward as negative. You assumed downward as positive, which is fine.
 
Thanks for the reply, but I still don't get how to do this. In particular where the extra b^2 comes from.

I rearranged the given expression for b^2 to get -

0.2D^2 = mg/b^2

After substituting in

ma = mg + (mg/b^2)v^2

Which I get to

a = g + (g/b^2)v^2

Which is close, but I see no point anywhere where an extra b^2 could appear from...
 
Kawakaze said:
Thanks for the reply, but I still don't get how to do this. In particular where the extra b^2 comes from.

I rearranged the given expression for b^2 to get -

0.2D^2 = mg/b^2

After substituting in

ma = mg + (mg/b^2)v^2

Which I get to

a = g + (g/b^2)v^2
yes, now multiply the first term on the right of the equal sign by [itex]b^2/b^2[/itex], (which is 1, which doesn't change its value)
[itex]a = g(b^2/b^2) + (g/b^2)v^2[/itex], now factor:
[itex]a = g/b^2( v^2 + b^2)[/itex]
 
Thanks! But how did you know to do that? Is there a rule for it?
 
Kawakaze said:
Thanks! But how did you know to do that? Is there a rule for it?
Gee, I don't know, I never did it this way before, I even surprised myself:eek:. If you hadn't provided the solution, I would have done it like

[itex]a = g + (g/b^2)v^2[/itex]
[itex]a = g(1 + (v^2/b^2))[/itex]
[itex]a = g(1 + (v/b)^2)[/itex]

But given the solution, I sort of worked backwards.:smile:
 
Job done, looks like we both picked up something new! :)

Thanks again!