All Eigenfunctions can be Represented by a Linear Superposition

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the representation of time-independent wave functions, specifically that any eigenfunction ##\psi (x)## can be expressed as a linear superposition of real solutions. It is established that while not all solutions to the time-independent Schödinger equation are real, any complex solution can be represented as a combination of real solutions. Participants emphasize the necessity of formal proof to demonstrate the relationship between eigenfunctions and the general wave function ##\Psi##, highlighting the importance of adhering to the definitions of eigenfunctions in quantum mechanics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of time-independent wave functions in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with the Schrödinger equation
  • Knowledge of linear algebra concepts, particularly vector spaces
  • Basic grasp of complex numbers and their conjugates
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  • Study the properties of eigenfunctions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the implications of linear superposition in wave functions
  • Explore formal proofs related to the Schrödinger equation
  • Investigate the role of complex conjugates in quantum mechanics
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Students and professionals in physics, particularly those focused on quantum mechanics, as well as educators teaching the principles of wave functions and eigenvalues.

kq6up
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Homework Statement



The time-independent wave function ##\psi (x)## can always be taken to be real (unlike ##\Psi (x,t)##, which is necessarily complex). This doesn't mean that every solution to the time-independent Schödinger equation is real; what it says is that if you've got one that is not, it can always be expressed as a linear combination of solutions (with the same energy) that are. So you might as well stick to ##\psi##'s that are real. Hint: If ##\psi (x)## satisfies Equation 2.5, for a given E, So too does its complex conjugate. and hence also the real linear combinations ##(\psi +\psi^*)## and ##i(\psi - \psi^*)##.


Homework Equations



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The Attempt at a Solution



Does not any two ##\psi##'s of the same energy level form a subspace of the total general function ##\Psi## that covers all of that subspace? That is if you put a real coefficient in front of one, and an imaginary coefficient in front of the other, you have the ability to make a vector that touches *every* point of that subspace. This seems self evident to me, and I don't understand why there needs to any kind of formal proof that involves plugging this into Schrödingers equation.

Agreed, or am I missing something?

Chris
 
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kq6up said:
Does not any two ##\psi##'s of the same energy level form a subspace of the total general function ##\Psi## that covers all of that subspace?
... well isn;t that most of what you have to prove?

Note: the wavefunctions cannot be just any old functions, they have to be solutons to the Schrödinger equation - so what is true for any old functions may not be true for psi's.

Agreed, or am I missing something?
You have been thinking about this problem backwards - of course if you start by defining the eigenfunctons as a subspace of the overall function then the answer is self evident - to do a proof you cannot assume that.
You have to start from the definition of the eigenfunctions and of the general function, and demonstrate that they have this relationship.
 
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