Alternate expression for definition of an Ideal?

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If A is an additive subgroup of a ring R, A is said to be an ideal if Ra is contained in A for all a in A; that is, if every multiple of an element of A is again in A.

Is it true that A is an ideal of R if Ar is contained in A for all r in R? To me it seems like they are equivalent statements but I'm not sure.

Update: Second thought, I believe these are NOT equivalent statements. I'm looking at the proof that explains why if 1 is in A then A = R, and you could not employ this argument under the faulty definition I tried to push. Anyone want to shed further light on the difference between these statements?
 
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Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
 
PsychonautQQ said:
Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
What makes you think that they are the same?
 
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PsychonautQQ said:
Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
Assuming that ##A## is an additive subgroup of ##R##, I think either of these conditions implies that ##A## is a right ideal.

In either case, we need to verify that if ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in A##.

Suppose the first condition holds. If ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in Ar \subseteq A##, so ##A## is a right ideal.

Now suppose the second condition holds. If ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in aR \subseteq A##, so ##A## is a right ideal.
 
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