Alternate expression for definition of an Ideal?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the definition of an ideal in the context of ring theory, specifically examining the equivalence of two statements regarding additive subgroups of a ring. Participants explore whether the conditions for an ideal can be expressed in alternate forms and the implications of these forms.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that an additive subgroup A of a ring R is an ideal if Ra is contained in A for all a in A, questioning if Ar contained in A for all r in R is also sufficient.
  • The same participant later revises their position, suggesting that the two statements are not equivalent, referencing a proof that relies on the presence of 1 in A.
  • Another participant proposes that the distinction may relate to the concepts of "right ideal" and "left ideal," prompting a link to external resources for clarification.
  • Further discussion includes a query about whether the two conditions (Ar contained in A for all r in R and aR contained in A for all a in A) define the same ideal A.
  • A participant suggests that if A is an additive subgroup of R, then either condition implies that A is a right ideal, providing reasoning based on the definitions of the conditions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the equivalence of the two conditions defining an ideal, with some suggesting they may not be equivalent while others explore their implications. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the precise relationship between the two statements.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific properties of ideals and the implications of the conditions under discussion, but there is no consensus on the equivalence of the definitions or their implications for the structure of ideals.

PsychonautQQ
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If A is an additive subgroup of a ring R, A is said to be an ideal if Ra is contained in A for all a in A; that is, if every multiple of an element of A is again in A.

Is it true that A is an ideal of R if Ar is contained in A for all r in R? To me it seems like they are equivalent statements but I'm not sure.

Update: Second thought, I believe these are NOT equivalent statements. I'm looking at the proof that explains why if 1 is in A then A = R, and you could not employ this argument under the faulty definition I tried to push. Anyone want to shed further light on the difference between these statements?
 
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Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
 
PsychonautQQ said:
Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
What makes you think that they are the same?
 
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PsychonautQQ said:
Ah right, didn't mean to switch those around. Would it be fair to say that the following statements define the same ideal A?

Ar is contained in A for all r in R
aR is contained in A for all a in A
Assuming that ##A## is an additive subgroup of ##R##, I think either of these conditions implies that ##A## is a right ideal.

In either case, we need to verify that if ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in A##.

Suppose the first condition holds. If ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in Ar \subseteq A##, so ##A## is a right ideal.

Now suppose the second condition holds. If ##a \in A## and ##r \in R##, then ##ar \in aR \subseteq A##, so ##A## is a right ideal.
 
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