Amplitudes in a Michelson interferometer

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the amplitude behavior of beams in a Michelson interferometer. It is established that when a beam hits the beam splitter, the resulting beams do not have half the amplitude of the original wave; instead, they maintain the same amplitude as the source wave. This conclusion is critical for accurately calculating the irradiance of the interference fringes, represented by the formula $$ I = 4 I_0 * cos^2(\frac {2{\pi}d} {\lambda} + \frac {\pi} {2}) $$ where ##d## is the path length difference. The intensity ##I_0## refers to the intensity of the beams after passing through the system, not the initial source intensity.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Michelson interferometer principles
  • Knowledge of wave optics and interference patterns
  • Familiarity with amplitude and intensity relationships in wave physics
  • Basic mathematical skills for manipulating trigonometric functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the derivation of the Michelson interferometer intensity formula
  • Study the concept of beam splitters and their effect on wave amplitude
  • Explore the implications of energy conservation in optical systems
  • Learn about the role of path length differences in interference patterns
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, optical engineers, and researchers in wave optics who seek to deepen their understanding of interference phenomena in Michelson interferometers.

Decimal
Messages
73
Reaction score
7
Hello,

I am having a hard time understanding a result relating to a michelson interferometer. I always assumed that when the beam hits the wave splitter both resulting waves will have half the amplitude of the original wave. However using this assumption does not give the correct irradiance for fringes on a michelson interferometer. $$ I = 4 I_0 * cos^2(\frac {2{\pi}d} {\lambda} + \frac {\pi} {2}) $$ Here ##d## is the difference in length between the two arms of the interferometer. I can only arrive at this expression by assuming that the amplitude of both beams after the beam amplitude is still the same as the source amplitude. Is this true, and if so, why is this? Wouldn't you be creating energy in this way?

Thanks!
 
Science news on Phys.org
##I_0## is the intensity of each of the beams after passing the entire system, not the source intensity.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
0
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K