- #1

herich

- 18

- 0

**So, the question is:**

"Whether increasing the area of the secondary coil but keeping the area of the primary coil unchanged can increase the induced voltage across the resistor connected the secondary coil?"

**My attempt:**

Correct,

since according to Faraday's Law, induced emf is proportional to the area of the secondary coil.

But the answer is incorrect. Actually why? Thanks