- #1

eibon

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## Homework Statement

Let f : A -> B be a bijection. Show that if a function g is such that f(g(x)) = x for

all x ϵ B and g(f(x)) = x for all x ϵ A, then g = f^-1. Use only the definition of a

function and the definition of the inverse of a function.

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

well since f is a bijection then there exist an f^-1 that remaps f back to A and since g does that then g is the unique inverse of f, or something like that please help I am not very good that this stuff