(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

Let f : A -> B be a bijection. Show that if a function g is such that f(g(x)) = x for

all x ϵ B and g(f(x)) = x for all x ϵ A, then g = f^-1. Use only the definition of a

function and the definition of the inverse of a function.

2. Relevant equations

3. The attempt at a solution

well since f is a bijection then there exist an f^-1 that remaps f back to A and since g does that then g is the unique inverse of f, or something like that please help im not very good that this stuff

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# Homework Help: An intro to real analysis question. eazy?

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