Analyzing the Analyticity of f(z)=Log(z-2i+1)

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SUMMARY

The function f(z) = Log(z - 2i + 1) is analytic except at the point z = -1 + 2i and along the positive real axis extending from this point due to the discontinuity of the logarithm's principal value. The analysis involves the Cauchy-Riemann equations applied to the real part u = ln(√((x + 1)² + (y - 2)²)) and the imaginary part v = Arg(z). The function is defined as analytic everywhere else, as long as the branch cut is properly accounted for. The principal argument is constrained to 0 < θ ≤ 2π, which influences the function's differentiability.

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Homework Statement


Find where the function: [tex]f(z)=Log(z-2i+1)[/tex] is analytic and where it is differentiable.


Homework Equations



Cauchy-Riemann equations?

The Attempt at a Solution



Here's where I am so far:
[tex]Log(z-2i+1)=Log((x+1)+i(y-2))=ln(\sqrt{(x+1)^{2}+(y-2)^{2}})+iArg(z)[/tex]

since I'm only looking at the principal value of the logarithm, [tex]0<\theta\leq2\pi[/tex] (this is the textbook's choice of principal argument), then
[tex]ln(\sqrt{(x+1)^{2}+(y-2)^{2}})[/tex] will be discontinuous at [tex]x=-1[/tex] and [tex]y=2[/tex]... and the function is undefined everywhere on the positive real axis (because of the choice of argument). So, [tex]f(z)[/tex] is non-differentiable at [tex]z=-1+2i[/tex] and everywhere in the positive direction on the real axis extending from the point [tex]z=-1[/tex], because that is the "center" of my mapping.

Now, I'm not sure how to show that it is differentiable everywhere else... Am I supposed to apply the cauchy-riemann equations to [tex]u=ln(\sqrt{(x+1)^{2}+(y-2)^{2}})[/tex] and [tex]v=Arg(z)[/tex]? If so, how do I take a partial derivative of [tex]Arg(z)[/tex]?
 
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Do you know where Log(z) is analytic? I think it's everywhere except along the branch cut you use to make it well defined, right? Then just translate by 2i-1. I don't think you need to get carried away with details.
 
Last edited:
i was thinking something along the lines of using [tex]Arg(z)=arctan(\frac{y-2}{x+1})[/tex] but I'm unsure how to define the inverse tangent... but if I let [tex]Arg(z)=2arctan(\frac{y-2}{x+1})+C[/tex], where C is an arbitrary constant, then the cauchy-riemann equations will be satisfied... not sure why yet... my trig is not good...

but anyway, yeah, i like your way better... you're right in that it's probably sufficient for this exercise...

thanks!
 

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