Another Quick Couple of Infinite Well Questions

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on two quantum mechanics problems involving wavefunctions and energy probabilities. In Problem 1, the wavefunction is given as \(\Psi(x,0) = A(\psi_1(x) + \psi_2(x))\), leading to a probability of 1/2 for obtaining either energy level E1 or E2 after normalization with \(A = 1/\sqrt{2}\). Problem 2 presents a more complex wavefunction \(\Psi(x,0) = Ax; 0 \leq x \leq a/2; A(a-x); a/2 \leq x \leq a\), where the participant struggles to understand the implications of infinite energy levels and the necessity of calculating coefficients \(c_n^2\) for accurate probability determination.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics wavefunctions
  • Familiarity with normalization of wavefunctions
  • Knowledge of energy eigenstates and their probabilities
  • Experience with calculating coefficients in quantum mechanics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the normalization process for quantum wavefunctions in detail
  • Learn about calculating energy probabilities using the coefficients \(c_n^2\)
  • Explore the concept of infinite potential wells in quantum mechanics
  • Investigate the implications of superposition in quantum states
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in quantum mechanics, particularly those tackling wavefunction analysis and energy probability calculations in infinite potential wells.

G01
Science Advisor
Gold Member
Messages
2,709
Reaction score
19

Homework Statement


Problem 1. If I had a wavefunction: \Psi(x,0) = A(\psi_1(x) + \psi_2(x))

What is the probability of getting E1 or E2 as your energy?

Problem 2 You have a wavefunction:

\Psi(x,0) = Ax; 0<= x <= a/2 ; A(a-x); a/2<= x <= a
What is the probability that an energy measurement would yield E1.

Homework Equations


Given Up above

The Attempt at a Solution


For problem 1, i feel the probabilities should be 1/2 for each of them, but this seems too easy. I also normalized and found Psi(x,t), A = 1/sqrt(2)

For problem 2 I'm completely lost
There are an infinite amount of energy levels so shouldn't the probability be 0, but then this doesn't make any sense. I feel I'm missing something. Are the probabilities not that easy?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
wait, just remembered...i got to find c_n^2...
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
16
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 39 ·
2
Replies
39
Views
14K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K